Nursing Elites

1. A client whose right leg is in skeletal traction complains of pain in the leg. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Asking the client to wiggle their toes
• B. Medicating the client with the prescribed analgesic
• C. Realigning the client
• D. Removing some of the traction weights

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client in skeletal traction complains of pain, the priority action for the nurse is to realign the client. Severe pain may indicate the need for realignment or that the traction weights are too heavy. Realigning the client should be the initial response as it can help alleviate the pain by ensuring proper alignment. Asking the client to wiggle their toes may not address the underlying issue causing the pain. Removing traction weights should never be done unless specifically ordered by the healthcare provider as it can affect the traction's effectiveness. Medicating the client with analgesics should only be considered after attempting to address the cause of the pain, which in this case, is realignment.

2. During the change of shift, the oncoming nurse notes a discrepancy in the number of Percocet (Oxycodone) listed and the number present in the narcotic drawer. The nurse's first action should be to:

• A. Notify the hospital pharmacist
• B. Notify the nursing supervisor
• C. Notify the Board of Nursing
• D. Notify the director of nursing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The first action the nurse should take is to report the finding to the nursing supervisor and follow the chain of command. Notifying the nursing supervisor allows for immediate action within the facility to address the discrepancy. If it is found that the pharmacy is in error, then notifying the hospital pharmacist (Choice A) would be appropriate. Choices C and D, notifying the Board of Nursing and the director of nursing, are not the initial steps to take. These options may be necessary if theft is suspected or if the facility's internal response is inadequate. Therefore, they are incorrect answers.

3. Which of these would be the most appropriate way to document a client's refusal of medication?

• A. "Heparin refused during shift. Risks reviewed."?
• B. "The client refused the heparin injection when I tried to administer it. She yelled at me, saying, 'I do not want that injection right now!' and told me to leave the room. I explained the risks of not taking the medication. She seemed very annoyed that I tried to give it at that time. I will attempt again later in my shift."?
• C. "Subcutaneous Heparin injection was attempted to be given to the client per the physician's order. Client refused, stating, 'I do not want that injection.' Potential risks for refusing the medication were reviewed with the client, and the client verbalized understanding."?
• D. "Ct stated she did not want the SQ heparin inj at this time. Risks of not taking this med were reviewed with the ct, and the ct verbalized understanding."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate way to document a client's refusal of medication should include details such as the medication, the client's statement of refusal, and the review of potential risks. Choice C accurately captures all these essential elements, making it the correct answer. Choice A lacks details about the client's refusal and the review of risks. Choice B includes unnecessary emotional descriptions and a plan of action that might not be appropriate. Choice D uses abbreviations that may not be universally understood, lacks proper punctuation, and also does not provide a detailed account of the refusal and the review of risks.

4. The healthcare provider sustains a needle puncture that requires HIV prophylaxis. Which of the following medication regimens should be used?

• A. an antibiotic such as Metronidazole and a protease inhibitor (Saquinavir)
• B. two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• C. one protease inhibitor such as Nelfinavir
• D. two protease inhibitors

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario of a needle puncture requiring HIV prophylaxis, the CDC recommends initiating treatment with two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, unless there is drug resistance. This regimen is preferred over other options such as a single protease inhibitor or two protease inhibitors due to its effectiveness and safety profile in this specific context. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors are commonly used in post-exposure prophylaxis due to their activity against HIV and lower risk of resistance development compared to other antiretroviral drug classes.

5. The nurse assesses a client for physiological risk factors for falls. The nurse should conclude that the client is not at risk if which of the following is discovered?

• A. history of dizziness
• B. need for a wheelchair due to reduced mobility
• C. weakness and fatigue noted when climbing stairs
• D. intact recent and remote memory

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is intact recent and remote memory. Intact memory function indicates that the client is less likely to be at risk for falls as it suggests cognitive awareness and orientation, which are important for safety. Choices A, B, and C are risk factors for falls: a history of dizziness can lead to imbalance, the need for a wheelchair due to reduced mobility can increase fall risk, and weakness and fatigue when climbing stairs indicate physical limitations that predispose a client to falls. Therefore, these options would suggest an increased risk for falls.

Similar Questions