Nursing Elites

1. A client whose right leg is in skeletal traction complains of pain in the leg. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Asking the client to wiggle their toes
• B. Medicating the client with the prescribed analgesic
• C. Realigning the client
• D. Removing some of the traction weights

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client in skeletal traction complains of pain, the priority action for the nurse is to realign the client. Severe pain may indicate the need for realignment or that the traction weights are too heavy. Realigning the client should be the initial response as it can help alleviate the pain by ensuring proper alignment. Asking the client to wiggle their toes may not address the underlying issue causing the pain. Removing traction weights should never be done unless specifically ordered by the healthcare provider as it can affect the traction's effectiveness. Medicating the client with analgesics should only be considered after attempting to address the cause of the pain, which in this case, is realignment.

2. When providing perineal care to a female client, how should the nurse perform the procedure?

• A. with gloves, washing the perineal area from front to back
• B. without gloves, having the client perform all care
• C. with gloves, washing the perineal area from back to front
• D. without gloves, pouring water from a sterile bottle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When providing perineal care to a female client, the nurse should wear gloves and wash the perineal area from front to back. This technique helps prevent the introduction of E. coli and other bacteria into the urethra, reducing the risk of urinary tract infections. Washing from back to front can introduce bacteria from the anal area to the urethra, leading to infections. Performing the procedure without gloves or having the client perform all care does not adhere to infection control practices. Pouring water from a sterile bottle alone may not ensure proper cleansing and infection prevention. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow proper perineal care guidelines.

3. Which sign might a healthcare professional observe in a client with a high ammonia level?

• A. coma
• B. edema
• C. hypoxia
• D. polyuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A high ammonia level can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which includes symptoms like confusion, disorientation, and can progress to coma. Coma is a severe condition of unconsciousness. Edema is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in body tissues, not typically associated with high ammonia levels. Hypoxia is a condition of inadequate oxygen supply to tissues and organs, not directly related to high ammonia levels. Polyuria is excessive urination, which is not a typical sign of high ammonia levels.

4. A client with a nasogastric (NG) tube begins vomiting. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Retape the NG tube.
• B. Clamp the NG tube.
• C. Remove the NG tube.
• D. Check the NG tube placement.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube begins vomiting, the nurse should first check the NG tube placement. Vomiting can be a sign of tube displacement, which can lead to serious complications. Retaping the tube (Choice A), clamping it (Choice B), or removing it (Choice C) without first assessing its placement can be harmful or ineffective. Checking the NG tube placement is crucial as it ensures that the tube is in the correct position and prevents potential complications. Retaping the NG tube (Choice A) is incorrect because the priority is to check the placement first. Clamping the NG tube (Choice B) or removing it (Choice C) without verifying the placement can be dangerous if the tube is dislodged. Thus, these actions should not be taken before confirming the tube's position.

5. A child comes to the clinic with a skin rash. The maculopapular lesions are distributed around the mouth and have honey-colored drainage. The caregiver states that the rash is getting worse and seems to spread with the child's scratching. Which of the following advisory comments should be given?

• A. The history and presentation might indicate chickenpox, a highly contagious disease.
• B. The lesions might indicate a noncontagious infection that does not require isolation.
• C. The history and presentation might indicate an infectious illness called impetigo.
• D. The lesions are not contagious unless others have open wounds or lesions themselves.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The scenario describes classic impetigo, characterized by maculopapular lesions with honey-colored drainage, typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. Antibiotic therapy is usually indicated for impetigo. Chickenpox, a highly contagious disease, presents with a history of high fever followed by a vesicular rash, different from the described maculopapular lesions with honey-colored drainage. Choice A is incorrect as the presentation is not consistent with chickenpox. Choice B is incorrect because impetigo is contagious, especially through direct contact. Choice D is also incorrect as impetigo is a contagious skin infection regardless of others having open wounds or lesions.

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