Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is preparing to perform a Rinne test on a client who complains of hearing loss. In which area does the healthcare provider first place an activated tuning fork?

• A. On the client's teeth
• B. On the client's forehead
• C. On the client's mastoid bone
• D. On the midline of the client's skull

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the Rinne test, the base of an activated tuning fork is held first against the mastoid bone, behind the ear, and then in front of the ear canal (0.5 to 2 inches). When the client no longer perceives the sound behind the ear, the fork is moved in front of the ear canal until the client indicates that the sound can no longer be heard. The client reports whether the sound from the tuning fork is louder behind the ear (on the mastoid bone) or in front of the ear canal. Placing the tuning fork on the teeth (Choice A), forehead (Choice B), or the midline of the skull (Choice D) is not part of the Rinne test procedure. Therefore, the correct answer is to first place the activated tuning fork on the client's mastoid bone.

2. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?

• A. Clozapine
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Ondansetron
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.

3. Distribution of a drug to various tissues depends on the amount of cardiac output to each type of tissue. Which tissue would receive the highest amount of cardiac output and thus the highest amount of a drug?

• A. skin
• B. adipose tissue
• C. skeletal muscle
• D. myocardium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The tissue that would receive the highest amount of cardiac output and thus the highest amount of a drug is the myocardium. Highly perfused tissues include vital organs like the brain, heart, kidneys, adrenal glands, and liver. The myocardium, being part of the heart, receives a significant amount of cardiac output. Choices A (skin) and B (adipose tissue) are poorly perfused tissues and would not receive high amounts of cardiac output. Choice C (skeletal muscle) is also less perfused compared to the myocardium.

4. Diagnostic genetic counseling, for procedures such as amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling, allows clients to make all of the following choices except:

• A. terminating the pregnancy.
• B. preparing for the birth of a child with special needs.
• C. accessing support services before the birth.
• D. completing the grieving process before the birth.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diagnostic genetic counseling provides clients with important information to make informed decisions regarding their pregnancy. Clients can choose to terminate the pregnancy, prepare for the birth of a child with special needs, and access support services before the birth based on the genetic testing results. However, completing the grieving process before the birth is not a typical choice during genetic counseling. The grieving process, if needed, may extend beyond the prenatal period, especially if the findings are concerning or indicate potential issues. Therefore, completing the grieving process before the birth is the exception among the provided options.

5. A nurse assisting with data collection is preparing to auscultate the client's bowel sounds. The client tells the nurse that he ate lunch just 45 minutes ago. On the basis of this information, which finding does the nurse expect to note?

• A. Gurgling sounds
• B. Hypoactive sounds
• C. Low-pitched sounds
• D. An absence of sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bowel sounds are high-pitched, gurgling, cascading sounds that occur irregularly between five and 30 times a minute. In this scenario, since the client ate lunch just 45 minutes ago, the nurse would expect to note gurgling sounds as normal bowel activity. Hypoactive sounds (low-pitched) or an absence of sounds are usually associated with conditions such as abdominal surgery or inflammation of the peritoneum, not with recent food intake. Therefore, the correct answer is gurgling sounds, indicating normal bowel activity following a recent meal.

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