Nursing Elites

1. An 80-year-old aphasic CVA client had abdominal surgery 2 days ago. Which of the following puts this client at the highest risk for inadequate pain management?

• A. Inability to turn, cough, and breathe deeply
• B. Inability to communicate pain
• C. Inability to ambulate freely
• D. Inability to use a bedside commode

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inability to communicate pain. In this scenario, the client's aphasia prevents them from verbally expressing their pain, which can lead to inadequate pain management if the healthcare team is not vigilant. The nurse must use alternative methods to assess and address the client's pain. Choices A, C, and D, although important considerations in postoperative care, do not directly relate to the client's ability to communicate pain, which is crucial for effective pain management in this case.

2. When assessing a client's mobility status, the physical examination should start with:

• A. examining their gait.
• B. orienting to time, place, and person.
• C. performing the Romberg test.
• D. conducting the Tandem Walk test.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a client's mobility status, it is crucial to start by examining their gait. Gait assessment is usually conducted as the client walks into the room. Normal gait is described as smooth, flowing, and rhythmic without the need for assistive devices. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the standard practice of beginning the assessment of mobility status with gait examination.

3. When ambulating a client with right-sided weakness, a nursing assistant should be positioned on which side of the client?

• A. Stands behind the client
• B. Positions the free hand on the client's shoulder
• C. Stands on the right side of the client
• D. Grasps the security belt in the midspine area of the small of the client's back

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When ambulating a client with right-sided weakness, the nursing assistant should stand on the affected side, which in this case is the client's right side. This position allows the assistant to provide proper support and assistance. Standing behind the client (Choice A) is incorrect as the assistant should be on the affected side. Positioning the free hand on the client's shoulder (Choice B) is a correct action as it helps in pulling the client toward them in case of a forward fall. Grasping the security belt in the midspine area of the small of the client's back (Choice D) is also correct to provide support and stability during ambulation.

4. A nurse working the 7 a.m. to 3 p.m. shift is reviewing the records of the assigned clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client scheduled for hemodialysis at 10 a.m.
• B. A client scheduled for contrast computed tomography (CT) at noon.
• C. A client scheduled for a nuclear scanning procedure at 10 a.m.
• D. A client scheduled for hydrotherapy for the treatment of a burn injury at 10:30 a.m.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the client scheduled for hemodialysis at 10 a.m. This client needs immediate assessment before the procedure, which may take up to 5 hours. The nurse should ensure the client is physically and emotionally prepared, check for fluid overload by assessing weight and lung sounds, review vital signs, and laboratory test results. The other clients described in the options have needs that are not as urgent. The client scheduled for a nuclear scanning procedure at 10 a.m. may require information reinforcement and increased fluid intake before the procedure. The client scheduled for hydrotherapy for the treatment of a burn injury at 10:30 a.m. may need pain medication administered 30 minutes prior to the therapy. The client scheduled for a contrast CT at noon may need procedure information reinforcement and a special contrast preparation just before the procedure.

5. When a drug is listed as Category X and prescribed to women of child-bearing age/capacity, the nurse and the interdisciplinary team should counsel the client that:

• A. Pregnancy tests are not reliable while taking the drug.
• B. She must use a reliable form of birth control.
• C. She should not take the Category X drug on days she has intercourse.
• D. She must follow up with an endocrinologist.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a drug is categorized as Category X, it signifies that there are significant risks of fetal abnormalities if taken during pregnancy. For this reason, women of child-bearing age/capacity should use reliable forms of birth control to prevent pregnancy while on the medication. This ensures that the client avoids the potential harm to the fetus. Option A is incorrect because pregnancy tests are not unreliable due to the drug, but rather the risk is related to potential harm to the fetus. Option C is incorrect as avoiding the drug only on days of intercourse does not provide sufficient protection against pregnancy. Option D is incorrect as the need for an endocrinologist is not directly related to the use of Category X drugs.

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