an 80 year old aphasic cva client had abdominal surgery 2 days ago which of the following puts this client at the highest risk for inadequate pain man
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NCLEX-PN

Safe and Effective Care Environment Nclex PN Questions

1. An 80-year-old aphasic CVA client had abdominal surgery 2 days ago. Which of the following puts this client at the highest risk for inadequate pain management?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inability to communicate pain. In this scenario, the client's aphasia prevents them from verbally expressing their pain, which can lead to inadequate pain management if the healthcare team is not vigilant. The nurse must use alternative methods to assess and address the client's pain. Choices A, C, and D, although important considerations in postoperative care, do not directly relate to the client's ability to communicate pain, which is crucial for effective pain management in this case.

2. How should the LPN document pain for a non-verbal client using the FLACC pain scale with these findings?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: '4'. The FLACC pain scale assesses pain in non-verbal patients based on five categories: Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability. In this case, the client exhibits occasional grimacing (1 point), relaxed legs (0 points), squirming (1 point), moans and whimpers (1 point), and is distractible (1 point). Adding these points together results in a total pain score of 4. Therefore, the LPN should document a pain score of 4 for this non-verbal client. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the total pain score based on the given findings.

3. Which of the following are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'All of the above.' Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, protease inhibitors block the activity of the HIV-1 protease enzyme, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, all the choices provided are valid antiviral drug classes for managing HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, and HIV fusion inhibitors play crucial roles in combating the virus at different stages. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors target an early stage, protease inhibitors act on a later stage, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent viral entry. Thus, 'All of the above' is the correct and comprehensive answer encompassing different mechanisms of action in managing HIV/AIDS.

4. Which of these should not be included when calculating a client's fluid intake?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pudding is a semi-solid and does not contribute significantly to fluid intake as it does not melt at room temperature. Therefore, it should not be included in fluid intake calculations. On the other hand, ice chips, Jell-O™, and IV fluid from an antibiotic piggyback are all sources of fluid that can significantly contribute to a client's total fluid intake and should be considered when calculating it. Ice chips and Jell-O™ provide hydration upon melting, while IV fluid directly adds to the fluid volume in the body.

5. The nurse receives an assignment of three clients. Which of the following should the nurse consider as the highest priority when determining which client to assess first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize assessing a client with a potential airway obstruction first based on the ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation) principle. Maintaining a clear airway is crucial for oxygenation and ventilation, making it the highest priority. Choices A and B focus on call bells and waiting times, which are important but not life-threatening in comparison to airway concerns. While pain management is essential, it takes precedence after addressing immediate life-threatening issues like airway compromise.

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