NCLEX-PN
2024 PN NCLEX Questions
1. A client can receive the Mumps, Measles, Rubella (MMR) vaccine if he or she:
- A. is pregnant.
- B. is immunocompromised.
- C. is allergic to neomycin.
- D. has a cold.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A client can receive the MMR vaccine if he or she has a cold without a fever since it does not preclude vaccination. Pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals cannot receive the MMR vaccine because the rubella component is a live virus that may cause birth defects and/or disease. Being allergic to neomycin is also a contraindication as per the American Academy of Pediatrics guidelines. Individuals who have experienced anaphylactic reactions to neomycin should not receive the measles vaccine. Therefore, option D 'has a cold' is the correct choice, as the presence of a simple cold does not prevent the client from receiving the MMR vaccine.
2. A nurse is providing information to a group of pregnant clients and their partners about the psychosocial development of an infant. Using Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, the nurse tells the group that infants have which developmental need?
- A. Must have needs ignored for short periods to develop a healthy personality
- B. Need to rely on the fact that their needs will be met
- C. Need to experience frustration, so it is best to allow an infant to cry for a while before meeting his or her needs
- D. Need to tolerate a great deal of frustration and discomfort to develop a healthy personality
Correct answer: B
Rationale: According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, infants struggle to establish a sense of basic trust rather than a sense of basic mistrust in their world, their caregivers, and themselves. If provided with consistent satisfying experiences that are delivered in a timely manner, infants come to rely on the fact that their needs are met and that, in turn, they will be able to tolerate some degree of frustration and discomfort until those needs are met. This sense of confidence is an early form of trust and provides the foundation for a healthy personality. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with Erikson's theory that emphasizes the importance of infants trusting that their needs will be met.
3. A client with an ileus is placed on intestinal tube suction. Which of the following electrolytes is lost with intestinal suction?
- A. calcium
- B. magnesium
- C. potassium
- D. sodium chloride
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is sodium chloride. Duodenal intestinal fluid is rich in potassium (K+), sodium (Na+), and bicarbonate. When suctioning is used to remove excess fluids due to ileus, it results in the loss of sodium chloride (NaCl) leading to decreased sodium (Na+) levels. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because calcium, magnesium, and potassium are not typically lost in significant amounts through intestinal tube suction in the context of treating ileus.
4. A nurse assisting with data collection notes that the client's skin is very dry. The nurse documents this finding using which term?
- A. Xerosis
- B. Pruritus
- C. Seborrhea
- D. Actinic keratoses
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Dry skin is also called xerosis. In this condition, the epidermis lacks moisture or sebum and is often marked by a pattern of fine lines, scaling, and itching. Xerosis is the correct term for very dry skin. Pruritus is the symptom of itching, an uncomfortable sensation that prompts the urge to scratch the skin, but it does not specifically refer to dry skin. Seborrhea is a skin condition characterized by overproduction of sebum, leading to excessive oiliness or dry scales, not necessarily indicating very dry skin. Actinic keratoses are sun-related skin lesions that are premalignant and not associated with dry skin.
5. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?
- A. Clozapine
- B. Fluoxetine
- C. Ondansetron
- D. Haloperidol
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.
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