Nursing Elites

1. All of the following are causes of vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy except:

• A. Placenta previa.
• B. Eclampsia.
• C. Abruptio placentae.
• D. Uterine rupture.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eclampsia. Eclampsia is a disorder of pregnancy characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. This condition can cause seizures and/or coma but does not typically present with vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are abnormal conditions that can cause bleeding, particularly in the third trimester. Placenta previa (choice A) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to vaginal bleeding. Abruptio placentae (choice C) is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, causing vaginal bleeding. Uterine rupture (choice D) is a serious obstetrical emergency where the uterus tears during pregnancy or childbirth, resulting in severe bleeding.

2. A child comes to the clinic with a skin rash. The maculopapular lesions are distributed around the mouth and have honey-colored drainage. The caregiver states that the rash is getting worse and seems to spread with the child's scratching. Which of the following advisory comments should be given?

• A. The history and presentation might indicate chickenpox, a highly contagious disease.
• B. The lesions might indicate a noncontagious infection that does not require isolation.
• C. The history and presentation might indicate an infectious illness called impetigo.
• D. The lesions are not contagious unless others have open wounds or lesions themselves.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The scenario describes classic impetigo, characterized by maculopapular lesions with honey-colored drainage, typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. Antibiotic therapy is usually indicated for impetigo. Chickenpox, a highly contagious disease, presents with a history of high fever followed by a vesicular rash, different from the described maculopapular lesions with honey-colored drainage. Choice A is incorrect as the presentation is not consistent with chickenpox. Choice B is incorrect because impetigo is contagious, especially through direct contact. Choice D is also incorrect as impetigo is a contagious skin infection regardless of others having open wounds or lesions.

3. Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?

• A. variable decelerations
• B. early decelerations
• C. bradycardia
• D. tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Variable decelerations can indicate cord compression as they are caused by umbilical cord compression or prolapse. This pattern shows an abrupt decrease in heart rate with an erratic shape, often resembling a V or W. Early decelerations (choice B) are typically caused by head compression during contractions and are considered benign. Bradycardia (choice C) is a consistent low heart rate below 110 bpm and is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (choice D) is an abnormally high heart rate above 160 bpm and is not associated with cord compression.

4. The nurse is preparing to administer IV Vancomycin to a client. Which of the following nursing actions should be taken first?

• A. Performing a physical assessment prior to administration
• B. Obtaining the most recent lab values regarding renal function
• C. Reviewing peaks and troughs for the past few days
• D. Ensuring the client is not allergic to the medication

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Before administering any medication, including IV Vancomycin, it is crucial to ensure that the client is not allergic to the medication. This is the most critical action to prevent any potential allergic reactions. While performing a physical assessment is important, it may not be as time-sensitive as checking for allergies. Obtaining lab values related to renal function is also significant with Vancomycin due to its potential nephrotoxicity, but ensuring the client's safety by checking for allergies takes precedence. Reviewing peaks and troughs is important for monitoring drug levels, but it is a secondary step compared to checking for allergies prior to administration.

5. Which of the following syndromes associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord?

• A. Brown-Séquard syndrome
• B. posterior cord syndrome
• C. central cord syndrome
• D. cauda equina syndrome

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Brown-Séquard syndrome is indeed associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord, and it specifically results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord. This syndrome manifests as ipsilateral motor paralysis, ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Posterior cord syndrome mainly involves the loss of proprioception and vibratory sense, while sparing motor function and pain sensation. Central cord syndrome typically presents with more weakness in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities due to central spinal cord damage. Cauda equina syndrome affects the nerve roots at the level of the conus medullaris, leading to symptoms like lower extremity weakness, numbness, and bowel/bladder dysfunction.

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