Nursing Elites

1. All of the following are causes of vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy except:

• A. Placenta previa.
• B. Eclampsia.
• C. Abruptio placentae.
• D. Uterine rupture.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eclampsia. Eclampsia is a disorder of pregnancy characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. This condition can cause seizures and/or coma but does not typically present with vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are abnormal conditions that can cause bleeding, particularly in the third trimester. Placenta previa (choice A) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to vaginal bleeding. Abruptio placentae (choice C) is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, causing vaginal bleeding. Uterine rupture (choice D) is a serious obstetrical emergency where the uterus tears during pregnancy or childbirth, resulting in severe bleeding.

2. Under what circumstances is the legal right to confidentiality of client information waived?

• A. When a court system subpoenas information.
• B. When a family member requests health care information of a client.
• C. When a living will takes effect.
• D. When the client is declared incompetent by the legal system.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The legal right to confidentiality of client information is waived when a court system subpoenas information. This occurs when information is required for legal proceedings to occur, such as through summonses, court orders, or litigation information necessary for the court. Subpoenas are legal orders that compel the disclosure of information. The other choices do not inherently waive the legal right to confidentiality. A family member's request for health care information would typically require the client's consent or fall under specific legal exceptions. A living will dictates end-of-life care preferences but does not necessarily waive confidentiality. Lastly, the declaration of incompetence may impact decision-making capacity but does not automatically waive confidentiality.

3. A nurse is planning client assignments for the day. Which task should the nurse assign to the nursing assistant (unlicensed assistive personnel)?

• A. Recording the urinary output for a client with renal calculi whose urine must be strained
• B. Dressing change instructions for a client who had a mastectomy 2 days ago
• C. Reporting abnormal lab values to the health care provider for a client scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy
• D. Preprocedural teaching for a client scheduled for a cardiac stress test

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse is legally responsible for client assignments and must assign tasks based on state nursing practice act guidelines and job descriptions provided by the employing agency. The nursing assistant is trained to measure, collect, and strain urine, making recording urinary output for a client with renal calculi a suitable task for the nursing assistant. This task falls within the nursing assistant's role description. Dressing change instructions for a client who had a mastectomy involve a higher level of skill and knowledge, beyond the scope of a nursing assistant. Reporting abnormal lab values to the health care provider for a client scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy requires interpretation and clinical judgment, which is typically not within the nursing assistant's role. Preprocedural teaching for a client scheduled for a cardiac stress test involves providing detailed information and education, which is usually the responsibility of a licensed nurse or other qualified healthcare provider.

4. To ensure proper immobilization and increase client comfort when using a rigid splint, what should be done?

• A. Place the client on a stretcher before splinting.
• B. Place the client on a long spine board before splinting.
• C. Pad the spaces between the body part and the splint.
• D. Ensure that the splint conforms to the body curves.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct. When using a rigid splint, it is essential to pad the spaces between the body part and the splint to ensure proper immobilization and increase client comfort. This padding helps prevent pressure points and ensures a proper fit of the splint without causing discomfort. Placing the client on a stretcher or a long spine board before splinting (choices A and B) may be necessary for transportation but does not directly relate to the proper use of a rigid splint. Ensuring that the splint conforms to the body curves (choice D) is important but not as crucial as padding the spaces to prevent discomfort and ensure proper immobilization.

5. A client with dumping syndrome should ___________ while a client with GERD should ___________.

• A. lie down 1 hour after meals; sit up at least 30 minutes after meals
• B. sit up 1 hour after meals; lie flat 30 minutes after meals
• C. sit up after meals; sit up after meals
• D. lie down after meals; lie down after meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with dumping syndrome should lie down after eating to decrease the symptoms of dumping syndrome, which include rapid gastric emptying leading to various gastrointestinal symptoms. On the other hand, clients with GERD should sit up at least 30 minutes after meals to prevent the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus. This position helps reduce symptoms by allowing gravity to keep the stomach contents in place, minimizing the chances of reflux. Therefore, the correct answer is to lie down 1 hour after eating for dumping syndrome and to sit up at least 30 minutes after eating for GERD. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the appropriate positioning for each condition.

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