Nursing Elites

1. Paula is a 32-year-old woman seeking evaluation and treatment for major depressive symptoms. A major nursing priority during the assessment process includes which of the following?

• A. meaning of current stressors
• B. possibility of self-harm
• C. motivation to participate in treatment
• D. presence of alcohol or other drug use

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to consider the possibility of self-harm during the assessment process. This is crucial because unless the client is first assessed for self-harm or suicide potential, the necessary degree of vigilance in the client's environment may not be observed. While understanding the meaning of current stressors is important for treatment planning, ensuring the client's safety takes precedence. Motivation to participate in treatment and the presence of alcohol or other drug use are also important aspects to assess but ensuring the client's safety is the top priority in this scenario.

2. On morning rounds, the nurse finds a somnolent client with a Blood glucose of 89 mg/dL. A sulfonurea and a proton pump inhibitor are scheduled to be administered. What is the nurse's best action?

• A. Give the proton pump inhibitor and hold the sulfonurea until the client eats
• B. Hold medications and notify the physician
• C. Arouse the client and give some orange juice with sugar packets added
• D. Give the medications as ordered and re-check blood sugar in one hour

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to give the proton pump inhibitor and hold the sulfonurea until the client eats. Sulfonureas should be held for blood glucose levels below 100 mg/dL until the client has food to prevent hypoglycemia. Giving the proton pump inhibitor is appropriate and does not need to be delayed. Option B is incorrect because holding both medications without taking appropriate action may lead to further complications. Option C is not the best choice as it does not address the need to hold the sulfonurea until the client eats. Option D is incorrect because administering the medications without ensuring the client eats may lead to hypoglycemia.

3. One of the major functions of the kidneys in maintaining normal fluid balance is:

• A. the manufacture of antidiuretic hormone.
• B. the regulation of calcium and phosphate balance.
• C. the regulation of the pH of the extracellular fluid.
• D. the control of aldosterone levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'the regulation of the pH of the extracellular fluid.' The kidneys play a crucial role in maintaining normal fluid balance by regulating extracellular fluid and osmolarity through selective retention and excretion of fluids. Additionally, they regulate the pH of the extracellular fluid by retaining hydrogen ions and excreting metabolic wastes and toxic substances. Choice A is incorrect because antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is manufactured by the pituitary gland, not the kidneys. Choice B is incorrect as the regulation of calcium and phosphate balance is primarily controlled by the parathyroid gland. Choice D is incorrect as aldosterone levels are controlled by the adrenal glands, not the kidneys.

4. The client is wheezing and struggling to breathe. Which of the inhaled medications is indicated at this time?

• A. Fluticasone (Flovent)
• B. Salmeterol (Serevent)
• C. Theophylline (Theodur)
• D. Albuterol (Atrovent)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Albuterol (Atrovent) because it is a rapid-acting bronchodilator, essential for a client experiencing wheezing and difficulty breathing. Albuterol acts quickly, dilating the airways and providing immediate relief in cases of respiratory distress. Fluticasone (Flovent) and Salmeterol (Serevent) are maintenance medications for long-term asthma control, not suitable for acute situations described. Theophylline (Theodur) is a bronchodilator but with a slower onset compared to Albuterol, making it less appropriate for a client in immediate distress.

5. A client admitted with an episode of bleeding esophageal varices is receiving propranolol (Inderal LA). The nurse knows to monitor for?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Arthralgia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Bradycardia.' Propranolol is a beta-blocking agent used to decrease the heart rate. In the case of bleeding esophageal varices, propranolol is given to reduce the risk of bleeding by keeping the heart rate around 55 beats per minute. Monitoring for bradycardia is essential as the medication's intended effect is to lower the heart rate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because propranolol would not typically cause hypertension, hyperkalemia, or arthralgia.

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