the nurse is preparing to administer iv vancomycin to a client which of the following nursing actions should be taken first
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions

1. The nurse is preparing to administer IV Vancomycin to a client. Which of the following nursing actions should be taken first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Before administering any medication, including IV Vancomycin, it is crucial to ensure that the client is not allergic to the medication. This is the most critical action to prevent any potential allergic reactions. While performing a physical assessment is important, it may not be as time-sensitive as checking for allergies. Obtaining lab values related to renal function is also significant with Vancomycin due to its potential nephrotoxicity, but ensuring the client's safety by checking for allergies takes precedence. Reviewing peaks and troughs is important for monitoring drug levels, but it is a secondary step compared to checking for allergies prior to administration.

2. Why is accurate documentation of assessment findings regarding pressure ulcers crucial?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Accurate documentation of assessment findings regarding pressure ulcers is crucial because the nursing assessment of ulcers is a standard practice in nursing care. Documenting these findings not only ensures continuity of care but also plays a vital role in preventing further progression of the ulcer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while laws, hospital policies, and physician requirements may influence documentation practices, the primary reason for accurate documentation lies in the standards of nursing practice and the quality of patient care.

3. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.

4. An advance directive is written and notarized according to law in the state of Colorado. This document is legal and binding:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'in the state of Colorado only.' Advance directive protocols and documents are specific to each state's laws and regulations. Choice A is incorrect as advance directives are not universally recognized internationally. Choice C is incorrect as the legal validity of an advance directive is limited to the state in which it was created. Choice D is incorrect as the legal reach of an advance directive typically extends throughout the state of origination, not just the county.

5. Which of the following activities is not part of client advocacy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'sharing your personal opinions to help provide additional information.' Client advocacy involves supporting the client's autonomy and choices. It is essential for the nurse to involve the client in treatment and decision-making (Choice A) to ensure their preferences are considered. Standing up for what is right for the client (Choice B) is also a crucial aspect of advocacy, ensuring their rights and well-being are protected. Encouraging the client to advocate for themselves (Choice D) empowers the client to express their needs. However, sharing personal opinions (Choice C) may influence the client's decision-making process and is not a recommended practice in client advocacy, as it can compromise the client's autonomy.

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