NCLEX-PN
2024 PN NCLEX Questions
1. A sexually active married couple, discussing birth control methods with the nurse, expresses the need for a method that is convenient. Because the couple has told the nurse that family-planning goals have been met, which method of birth control does the nurse suggest?
- A. Diaphragm
- B. Sterilization
- C. Male condom
- D. Spermicide
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, since the couple has indicated that their family-planning goals have been met, a permanent method of contraception like sterilization would be most suitable. Sterilization offers long-term effectiveness and convenience once the decision to stop having children is made. Options like the diaphragm, male condom, or spermicide are more suitable for temporary contraception or when the family-planning goals have not yet been achieved. Therefore, the correct answer is sterilization, as it aligns with the couple's need for a convenient and permanent birth control method.
2. The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:
- A. administer both medications simultaneously
- B. give the medications sequentially, and flush well between them
- C. ask the physician or pharmacy which medication to give first and how long to wait before giving the other drug
- D. start one medication now and begin the other medication in 2-4 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them. Ampicillin has a pH of 8-10, while gentamicin has a pH of 3-5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent any potential interactions. Option A is incorrect because administering both medications simultaneously can lead to incompatibility issues. Option C is incorrect because the nurse should already be aware of the correct administration sequence and not need to consult the physician or pharmacy each time. Option D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow down the treatment of the client's infection, which is not ideal in this scenario.
3. How often should the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions be changed?
- A. every 24 hours
- B. every 36 hours
- C. every 48 hours
- D. every 72 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to change the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions every 24 hours. This frequency is necessary due to the high risk of bacterial growth associated with TPN solutions. Changing the tubing every 24 hours helps prevent contamination and bloodstream infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because waiting longer intervals increases the risk of introducing harmful bacteria into the patient's system, leading to potentially severe complications.
4. A 37-year-old female client asks the nurse about contraception options and expresses interest in oral contraception pills. Which of the following statements would indicate that oral contraception is appropriate for this client?
- A. "I quit smoking last year, but I started again recently. Maybe I'll try to quit later this year."?
- B. "I am very diligent in taking my thyroid medications at the same time every day."?
- C. "I was hospitalized for deep vein thrombosis five years ago."?
- D. "I was recently diagnosed with breast cancer."?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is the statement mentioning a history of deep vein thrombosis five years ago. Oral contraceptives are generally not recommended for individuals with a history of deep vein thrombosis due to the increased risk of blood clots. Choice B, about being diligent in taking thyroid medications, does not directly relate to the safety of using oral contraceptives. Choice D, about a recent breast cancer diagnosis, would contraindicate the use of hormonal contraceptives. Choice A, mentioning a recent return to smoking, raises concerns about using hormonal contraceptives due to the increased risk of cardiovascular complications.
5. An assessment of the skull of a normal 10-month-old baby should identify which of the following?
- A. closure of the posterior fontanel.
- B. closure of the anterior fontanel.
- C. overlap of cranial bones.
- D. ossification of the sutures
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the closure of the posterior fontanel. By 10 months of age, the posterior fontanel should be closed. The anterior fontanel typically closes around 12-18 months of age. Overlapping of cranial bones is not a normal finding and may indicate craniosynostosis, a condition where the sutures close too early. Ossification of the sutures is also not a normal finding in a 10-month-old baby as the sutures should remain open to allow for the growth of the skull.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access