Nursing Elites

1. When a person using over-the-counter nasal decongestant drops experiences unrelieved and worsening nasal congestion, what should be instructed?

• A. switch to a stronger dose of the same medication.
• B. discontinue the medication for a few weeks.
• C. continue taking the same medication, but use it more frequently.
• D. use a combination of medications for better relief.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a person using over-the-counter nasal decongestant drops experiences unrelieved and worsening nasal congestion, it is crucial to discontinue the medication for a few weeks. Prolonged use of decongestant drops can lead to rebound congestion, which is relieved by stopping the medication for a period of time. Nasal congestion occurs due to various factors like infection, inflammation, or allergy, leading to swelling of the nasal cavity. Nasal decongestants work by stimulating alpha-adrenergic receptors, causing vasoconstriction and shrinking of nasal mucous membranes. However, prolonged use can result in vasodilation, worsening nasal congestion. Switching to a stronger dose of the same medication is not recommended as it can exacerbate the issue. Continuing the same medication more frequently or using a combination of medications are also not advised and may lead to side effects. Educating individuals on proper decongestant use and potential risks of prolonged usage is essential, especially for those with specific health conditions.

2. The client has just returned from electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) and is very drowsy. What is the position of choice until the client regains full consciousness?

• A. Supine
• B. Fowlers
• C. Lateral
• D. High Fowlers

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Lateral.' When a client is very drowsy or sedated, placing them in the lateral position is important to maintain an open airway and allow for drainage of secretions. This position helps prevent airway obstruction and aspiration. Choice A, 'Supine,' is lying flat on the back and may not be ideal for a drowsy client due to the risk of airway compromise. Choice B, 'Fowlers,' is a semi-sitting position that is beneficial for clients with respiratory distress, but it may not be the best choice for a very drowsy individual. Choice D, 'High Fowlers,' is a more upright sitting position, which again may not be suitable for a drowsy client as it does not facilitate airway patency as effectively as the lateral position.

3. The client develops a tension pneumothorax. Assessment is expected to reveal?

• A. Sudden hypertension and bradycardia
• B. Productive cough with yellow mucus
• C. Tracheal deviation and dyspnea
• D. Sudden development of profuse hemoptysis and weakness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a tension pneumothorax, the trachea deviates to the unaffected side due to increased pressure in the affected pleural space, causing respiratory distress. Dyspnea is a hallmark symptom as the lung on the affected side collapses, leading to difficulty in breathing. Sudden hypertension and bradycardia (Choice A) are not typical findings of tension pneumothorax. Productive cough with yellow mucus (Choice B) is more suggestive of respiratory infections rather than a tension pneumothorax. Sudden development of profuse hemoptysis and weakness (Choice D) is not characteristic of tension pneumothorax presentation.

4. A female client complains to the nurse at the health department that she has fatigue, shortness of breath, and lightheadedness. Her history reveals no significant medical problems. She states that she is always on a fad diet without any vitamin supplements. Which tests should the nurse expect the client to have first?

• A. peptic ulcer studies
• B. complete blood count, including hematocrit and hemoglobin
• C. genetic testing
• D. hemoglobin electrophoresis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to perform a complete blood count, including hematocrit and hemoglobin, as the initial tests to assess the client's symptoms related to fatigue, shortness of breath, and lightheadedness. These symptoms can be indicative of anemia, which can be caused by nutritional deficiencies due to fad dieting without vitamin supplements. Peptic ulcer studies, genetic testing, and hemoglobin electrophoresis are not the most appropriate initial tests for the client's presenting symptoms and history. Peptic ulcer studies are not relevant to the client's symptoms. Genetic testing is not indicated based on the client's presentation and history. Hemoglobin electrophoresis is used to diagnose specific types of anemia and is not the first-line test in this scenario. Further testing decisions should be based on the results of the initial tests, the client's history, and other relevant factors.

5. Which of the following is not a primary function of the kidneys?

• A. blood pressure control
• B. vitamin D activation
• C. erythropoietin production
• D. reabsorption of waste products

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is reabsorption of waste products because the kidneys excrete waste products rather than reabsorbing them. Choices A, B, and C are indeed primary functions of the kidneys. The kidneys play a crucial role in regulating blood pressure, activating vitamin D, and producing erythropoietin, which stimulates red blood cell production. Therefore, the primary role of the kidneys is to filter blood, remove waste products, regulate fluid balance, and maintain electrolyte balance.

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