NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Exam Cram
1. A nurse is instructing a patient about the warning signs of Digitalis side effects. Which of the following side effects should the nurse tell the patient are sometimes associated with excessive levels of Digitalis?
- A. Seizures
- B. Muscle weakness
- C. Depression
- D. Anxiety
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Muscle weakness.' Palpitations and muscle weakness are commonly associated with excessive levels of Digitalis. Seizures, depression, and anxiety are not typically linked to Digitalis toxicity. Seizures could be more related to other medications or conditions, while depression and anxiety are not commonly reported side effects of Digitalis.
2. A 64-year-old Alzheimer's patient has exhibited excessive cognitive decline resulting in harmful behaviors. The physician orders restraints to be placed on the patient. Which of the following is the appropriate procedure?
- A. Secure the restraints to the bed rails on all extremities.
- B. Notify the physician that restraints have been placed properly.
- C. Communicate with the patient and family the need for restraints.
- D. Position the head of the bed at a 45-degree angle.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In cases where restraints are considered necessary for a patient, it is crucial to communicate effectively with both the patient and their family about the reasons for this decision. This helps ensure that all parties involved understand the necessity of restraints and are informed about the potential risks and benefits. Option A, securing restraints to the bed rails on all extremities, is not appropriate as it does not involve proper communication or ethical considerations. Option B, notifying the physician that restraints have been placed properly, overlooks the importance of patient and family involvement in decision-making. Option D, positioning the head of the bed at a 45-degree angle, is unrelated to the use of restraints and does not address the situation at hand.
3. A nurse is weighing a breastfed 6-month-old infant who has been brought to the pediatrician's office for a scheduled visit. The infant's weight at birth was 6 lb 8 oz. The nurse notes that the infant now weighs 13 lb. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Tell the mother to decrease the daily number of feedings because the weight gain is excessive.
- B. Tell the mother that the infant's weight is increasing as expected.
- C. Tell the mother that the infant should continue with breast milk as the weight gain is adequate.
- D. Tell the mother that semisolid foods should not be introduced until the infant's weight stabilizes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the mother that the infant's weight gain is normal. Infants typically double their birth weight by 6 months, which is precisely the case here, with the infant's weight increasing from 6 lb 8 oz to 13 lb. This weight gain indicates healthy growth and development. Therefore, there is no need to decrease feedings. The infant should continue with breast milk as it is providing adequate nutrition. Additionally, introducing semisolid foods is usually recommended between 4 and 6 months of age, so there is no indication to delay based on the infant's weight gain.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with an elevated cortisol level. The nurse can expect the client to exhibit symptoms of:
- A. urinary excess
- B. hyperpituitarism
- C. urinary deficit
- D. hyperthyroidism
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevated cortisol levels can lead to sodium and fluid retention and potassium deficit, resulting in urinary deficit. This imbalance in electrolytes and fluid can cause a decrease in urinary output. Choices B, hyperpituitarism, and D, hyperthyroidism, are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the symptoms expected with elevated cortisol levels. Option A, urinary excess, is also incorrect as high cortisol levels typically lead to fluid retention and urinary deficit, not excess.
5. Clomiphene is prescribed for a female client to treat infertility. The nurse is providing information to the client and her spouse about the medication and provides the couple with which information?
- A. If the oral tablets are not successful, the medication will be administered intravenously.
- B. The couple should engage in coitus at least every other day during treatment.
- C. The physician should be notified immediately if breast engorgement occurs.
- D. Multiple births occur in a small percentage of clomiphene-facilitated pregnancies.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that multiple births (usually twins) occur in a small percentage (8% - 10%) of clomiphene-facilitated pregnancies. The couple should be informed about this potential outcome. Clomiphene is available in 50-mg tablets for oral use; there is no intravenous form of the medication. Breast engorgement is a common side effect of clomiphene that typically resolves after discontinuation of the medication. Ovulation usually happens 5 to 10 days after the last dose of clomiphene, and the couple is advised to engage in coitus at least every other day during this time. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide accurate information regarding clomiphene treatment for infertility.
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