Nursing Elites

1. What does it mean to be a nursing advocate?

• A. makes decisions for others.
• B. encourages persons to make decisions for themselves and acts with or on behalf of the person to support those decisions.
• C. manages the care of others.
• D. is the legal representative for a person.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nursing advocate does not make decisions for others but instead empowers individuals to make decisions for themselves. By encouraging individuals to make their own decisions and supporting them in this process, nursing advocates uphold the principle of self-determination. This approach respects the autonomy and independence of individuals in managing their care. Therefore, the correct answer is to 'encourage persons to make decisions for themselves and act with or on behalf of the person to support those decisions.' Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the role of a nursing advocate in promoting patient autonomy and self-determination.

2. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:

• A. Primary prevention.
• B. Secondary prevention.
• C. Tertiary prevention.
• D. Disability prevention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.

3. How often should physical restraints be released?

• A. Every 2 hours
• B. Between 1 and 3 hours
• C. Every 30 minutes
• D. At least every 4 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to release physical restraints every 2 hours. Releasing restraints every 2 hours helps prevent complications associated with prolonged immobilization. Releasing restraints every 30 minutes (choice C) may be too frequent and disruptive to the client's care. Releasing restraints between 1 and 3 hours (choice B) introduces variability that could lead to inconsistencies in care. Releasing restraints at least every 4 hours (choice D) does not adhere to the recommended frequency of every 2 hours.

4. A licensed practical nurse tells the certified nursing assistant (CNA) staff that they will need to comply with the mandatory overtime policy that the long-term care facility has implemented. Later that day, the nurse overhears a CNA complaining about the policy and telling other CNAs that she will not work the overtime if she has made other plans after her regular shift. What is the best approach for the nurse to use in dealing with the conflict?

• A. Providing a positive reward system for the CNA to encourage working the mandatory overtime
• B. Ignoring the complaints
• C. Avoiding assigning the CNA mandatory overtime
• D. Meeting with the CNA regarding her behavior concerning the overtime policy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this situation, the best approach for the nurse is to meet with the CNA regarding her behavior concerning the overtime policy. Initiating a discussion is crucial to address resistance by a staff member. A face-to-face meeting allows for the verbalization of feelings, identification of problems, and the opportunity to develop strategies to solve the issue. Ignoring the complaints and avoiding assigning mandatory overtime do not tackle the root of the problem. Providing a positive reward system might offer a temporary fix but does not directly address the resistance and conflict.

5. A graduate nurse hired to work in a medical unit of a hospital is attending an orientation session. The nurse educator, discussing care maps, asks the graduate nurse whether she understands how a care map is used. Which response indicates understanding?

• A. The care map outlines the day-to-day expected outcomes of care and the outcomes anticipated at discharge
• B. The care map is a plan that is used only by the nurse to provide client care
• C. The care map is a standard plan, rather than an individualized one, that is developed strictly by a nurse and used for a client with a particular diagnosis
• D. The care map is developed by a nurse and identifies nursing diagnoses

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A care map, also known as a critical pathway, outlines the day-to-day expected outcomes of care and the outcomes anticipated at discharge or the end of a treatment phase. It includes clinical assessments, treatments, dietary interventions, activity therapies, client education, and discharge planning. While it may identify nursing diagnoses, a care map is developed by all disciplines caring for the client type and is used by the interdisciplinary team, not just the nurse alone. Choice B is incorrect because a care map is not solely for the nurse but for the entire interdisciplinary team. Choice C is incorrect as care maps are individualized plans developed by the interdisciplinary team, not just by a nurse. Choice D is incorrect as a care map is not solely about nursing diagnoses but encompasses a comprehensive plan of care.

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