Nursing Elites

1. What does it mean to be a nursing advocate?

• A. makes decisions for others.
• B. encourages persons to make decisions for themselves and acts with or on behalf of the person to support those decisions.
• C. manages the care of others.
• D. is the legal representative for a person.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nursing advocate does not make decisions for others but instead empowers individuals to make decisions for themselves. By encouraging individuals to make their own decisions and supporting them in this process, nursing advocates uphold the principle of self-determination. This approach respects the autonomy and independence of individuals in managing their care. Therefore, the correct answer is to 'encourage persons to make decisions for themselves and act with or on behalf of the person to support those decisions.' Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the role of a nursing advocate in promoting patient autonomy and self-determination.

2. While on the wound care team, the nurse notices that a fellow nurse opens extra colloid dressings that are often thrown away when they are not needed. What should the nurse do?

• A. Do nothing, as it is not impacting client care.
• B. Discuss with the colleague the concern about wasting supplies.
• C. Tell the charge nurse to stop ordering these dressings.
• D. Remove the colloid dressings from the shelf so that the nurse will find other supplies to use.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to discuss with the colleague the concern about wasting supplies. By addressing this issue, the nurse can promote cost-effective care within the unit. While it may not directly impact client care, the wastage of supplies affects the unit's supply cost, making choice A incorrect. Choice C is incorrect as it assumes the charge nurse is solely responsible for the ordering process and overlooks the opportunity for direct communication between colleagues. Choice D is incorrect as it involves taking matters into one's own hands rather than addressing the issue through communication and collaboration.

3. Which of the following statements is true about syphilis?

• A. The cause and mode of transmission are well understood.
• B. There is no known cure for the disease.
• C. When the primary lesion heals, the disease is cured.
• D. Syphilis can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement about syphilis is that it can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy. Syphilis is a treponemal disease that can be effectively treated with antibiotics, particularly long-acting penicillin G. The primary lesion of syphilis, known as a chancre, typically appears about three weeks after exposure and can involute even without specific treatment. If left untreated, secondary manifestations may occur, followed by latent periods. Specific treatment with antibiotics is crucial to prevent progression and transmission of the disease. Therefore, option D is correct. Option A is incorrect because the cause and mode of transmission of syphilis are well understood. Option B is incorrect as there is a known cure for syphilis. Option C is incorrect because the healing of the primary lesion does not indicate a cure for the disease.

4. Which of the following client statements indicates adequate understanding of preparation for electroencephalography?

• A. "I don't need to eat or drink after midnight."?
• B. "I need to wash my hair before the test."?
• C. "I need to remove metal jewelry."?
• D. "I can't take aspirin before the test."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement is, 'I need to wash my hair before the test.' Washing the hair is necessary to remove hair products that could interfere with electrode attachment to the scalp. Restricting food or drink is not required, except for avoiding caffeinated beverages. Removing metal jewelry is unnecessary for an electroencephalography procedure. Aspirin does not need to be avoided before the test; medications like anticonvulsants, tranquilizers, barbiturates, and sedatives are the ones that might need to be held.

5. When a client has a chest drainage system in place, where should the system be placed?

• A. above the level of the client's chest
• B. at the level of the client's shoulders
• C. at the level of the chest
• D. below the level of the chest

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A chest drainage system should be placed below the level of the client's chest to ensure proper drainage of fluid from the chest. Placing the system above the level of the chest or at the shoulders would not allow gravity to assist in the drainage process, potentially leading to complications such as fluid accumulation. Similarly, placing it at the level of the chest would not create the necessary gravity-dependent flow for effective drainage, which is crucial for the proper functioning of the chest drainage system.

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