Nursing Elites

1. A nurse working in a pediatric clinic observes bruises on the body of a four-year-old boy. The parents report the boy fell while riding his bike. The bruises are located on his posterior chest wall and gluteal region. What should the nurse do?

• A. Suggest a script for counseling the family to the doctor on duty.
• B. Recommend a warm bath for the boy to decrease healing time.
• C. Notify the case manager in the clinic about possible child abuse concerns.
• D. Recommend ROM exercises to the patient's spine to decrease healing time.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse is observing bruises on a child's body that are located in areas not commonly associated with accidental injuries. Given the concerning nature of the bruising pattern and the inconsistent history provided by the parents, the nurse should suspect possible child abuse and take appropriate action by notifying the case manager in the clinic. The safety and well-being of the child should always be the top priority. Counseling for the family, warm baths, or recommending range of motion (ROM) exercises are not appropriate actions in this situation and may not address the underlying issue of potential child abuse.

2. When assessing a client in the Emergency Department whose membranes have ruptured, the nurse notes that the fluid is a greenish color. What is the cause of this greenish coloration?

• A. blood
• B. meconium
• C. hydramnios
• D. caput

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: meconium. Greenish amniotic fluid passed when the fetus is in a cephalic (head) presentation might indicate fetal distress. A fetus in the breech presentation passes meconium due to compression on the intestinal tract. Choice A, blood, is incorrect as blood in the amniotic fluid would present as a different color. Choice C, hydramnios, refers to an excess of amniotic fluid and would not cause the greenish coloration. Choice D, caput, is swelling of a newborn's scalp and is not related to the color of the amniotic fluid.

3. Jane Love, a 35-year-old gravida III para II at 23 weeks gestation, is seen in the Emergency Department with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Jane reports that she has been feeling tired and has noticed ankle swelling in the evening. Laboratory tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 11.5 g/dL. After evaluating the situation, the nurse determines that Jane is at risk for placenta previa, based on which of the following data?

• A. anemia
• B. edema
• C. painless vaginal bleeding
• D. fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placenta previa is a disorder where the placenta implants in the lower uterine segment, causing painless bleeding in the third trimester of pregnancy. The bleeding results from tearing of the placental villi from the uterine wall as the lower uterine segment contracts and dilates. It can be slight or profuse and can include bright red, painless bleeding. While anemia (choice A) may be a consequence of chronic bleeding from placenta previa, it is not a direct indicator. Edema (choice B) and fatigue (choice D) are nonspecific symptoms that can occur in pregnancy but are not specific to placenta previa.

4. A patient asks a nurse the following question: Exposure to TB can be best identified with which of the following procedures?

• A. Chest x-ray
• B. Mantoux test
• C. Breath sounds examination
• D. Sputum culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Mantoux test, also known as the tuberculin skin test, is the most appropriate and accurate test to identify exposure to TB. This test involves injecting a small amount of PPD tuberculin under the top layer of the skin, and a positive reaction indicates exposure to the TB bacteria. Choice A, a chest x-ray, is useful for detecting active TB disease but not exposure. Choice C, a breath sounds examination, is not a specific test for TB exposure. Choice D, a sputum culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis, is used to diagnose active TB infection rather than exposure.

5. What type of diet is appropriate for a client with chronic cirrhosis?

• A. High calorie, low protein
• B. High protein, high calorie
• C. Low fat, low sodium
• D. High calorie, low sodium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct diet for a client with chronic cirrhosis is high calorie, low protein. Cirrhosis can lead to impaired protein metabolism, making it essential to limit protein intake. High-calorie foods help meet the client's energy needs. Choice B (High protein, high calorie) is incorrect because high protein intake can worsen hepatic encephalopathy. Choice C (Low fat, low sodium) is not the most appropriate diet for cirrhosis as the focus should be on calories and protein. Choice D (High calorie, low sodium) does not address the need to restrict protein intake, which is crucial in cirrhosis.

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