Nursing Elites

1. A nurse working in a pediatric clinic observes bruises on the body of a four-year-old boy. The parents report the boy fell while riding his bike. The bruises are located on his posterior chest wall and gluteal region. What should the nurse do?

• A. Suggest a script for counseling the family to the doctor on duty.
• B. Recommend a warm bath for the boy to decrease healing time.
• C. Notify the case manager in the clinic about possible child abuse concerns.
• D. Recommend ROM exercises to the patient's spine to decrease healing time.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse is observing bruises on a child's body that are located in areas not commonly associated with accidental injuries. Given the concerning nature of the bruising pattern and the inconsistent history provided by the parents, the nurse should suspect possible child abuse and take appropriate action by notifying the case manager in the clinic. The safety and well-being of the child should always be the top priority. Counseling for the family, warm baths, or recommending range of motion (ROM) exercises are not appropriate actions in this situation and may not address the underlying issue of potential child abuse.

2. A 27-year-old woman has delivered twins in the OB unit. The patient develops a condition of 5-centimeter diastasis recti abdominis. Which of the following statements is the most accurate when instructing the patient?

• A. Avoid sit-ups to prevent worsening the condition.
• B. Surgery is not always necessary for this condition.
• C. Guarding the abdominal region is important at this time.
• D. Antibiotics are not needed for diastasis recti abdominis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After experiencing diastasis recti abdominis, it is crucial for the patient to protect and guard the abdominal region to facilitate healing. Choice A is correct since avoiding sit-ups is important to prevent worsening the condition by increasing intra-abdominal pressure. Choice B is accurate as not all cases of diastasis recti abdominis require surgery; conservative management is often effective. Choice D is also correct as antibiotics are not indicated for diastasis recti abdominis since it is a separation of the abdominal muscles and not an infectious condition.

3. The nurse is caring for a client receiving warfarin therapy (Coumadin�) following a stroke. The client's PT/INR was completed at 7:00 A.M. prior to the morning meal with an INR reading of 4.0. Which of the following is the nurse's first priority?

• A. Call the physician to request an increase in the Coumadin� dose.
• B. Administer a vitamin K injection IM and notify the physician of the results.
• C. Assess the client for bleeding around the gums or in the stool and notify the physician of the lab results and latest dose of Coumadin�.
• D. Notify the next shift to hold the daily dose of Coumadin� scheduled for 5:00 P.M.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client receiving warfarin therapy with a high INR of 4.0, the nurse's first priority is to administer a vitamin K injection intramuscularly (IM) and notify the physician of the results. An INR of 4.0 indicates excessive anticoagulation, putting the client at risk of bleeding. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin overdose and helps to reverse its effects. It is crucial to administer vitamin K promptly to prevent bleeding complications. Calling the physician to request an increase in the Coumadin� dose is inappropriate and dangerous in this situation, as it would further raise the INR. Assessing the client for bleeding and notifying the physician is important but not the first priority when faced with a critically high INR. Holding the daily dose of Coumadin� may be necessary after administering vitamin K, but it is not the primary action needed to address the acute high INR level.

4. The nurse has just received a change-of-shift report. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client 2 hours post-lobectomy with 150cc drainage
• B. A client 2 days post-gastrectomy with scant drainage
• C. A client with pneumonia with an oral temperature of 102�F
• D. A client with a fractured hip in Buck's traction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should assess the client 2 hours post-lobectomy with 150cc drainage first because postoperative assessments are crucial during the immediate postoperative period. This client may be at higher risk for complications, such as bleeding or infection, requiring immediate attention. Clients in choices B, C, and D are relatively stable and can be assessed after the immediate postoperative client has been evaluated.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum. What is the most likely electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hypocalcemia
• B. Hypomagnesemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hyperemesis gravidarum, where the client experiences severe nausea and vomiting, the most likely electrolyte imbalance is hypokalemia. Potassium is abundant in the stomach, and excessive vomiting leads to potassium loss. Hypocalcemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. Hypomagnesemia (Choice B) and Hyponatremia (Choice C) are less likely to occur compared to hypokalemia in this condition.

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