NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Exam Cram
1. Which of the following should not be included in the teaching for clients who take oral iron preparations?
- A. Mix the liquid iron preparation with antacids to reduce GI distress.
- B. Take the iron with meals if GI distress occurs.
- C. Liquid forms should be taken with a straw to avoid discoloration of tooth enamel.
- D. Oral forms should be taken with juice, not milk.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to mix the liquid iron preparation with antacids to reduce GI distress. This statement is incorrect because iron should not be mixed with antacids as it can significantly reduce the absorption of iron. Choice B is a good recommendation as taking iron with meals can help reduce gastrointestinal distress. Choice C is also correct as liquid forms of iron should be taken with a straw to prevent the discoloration of tooth enamel. Choice D is incorrect as iron preparations can be taken with juice or water, but not with milk, as calcium in milk can inhibit iron absorption.
2. A nurse at an outpatient clinic is returning phone calls that have been made to the clinic. Which of the following calls should have the highest priority for medical intervention?
- A. A home health patient reports, "I am starting to have a breakdown of my heels."?
- B. A patient that received an upper extremity cast yesterday reports, "I can't feel my fingers in my right hand today."?
- C. A young female reports, 'I think I sprained my ankle about 2 weeks ago.'
- D. A middle-aged patient reports, 'My knee is still hurting from the TKR.'
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is the patient who received an upper extremity cast yesterday and reports not being able to feel their fingers in the right hand. This situation indicates a potential neurovascular issue that requires immediate attention to prevent complications. The other options are of lesser priority: A - Breakdown of the heels, while concerning, is not an acute issue that necessitates immediate intervention. C - An ankle sprain that occurred two weeks ago is now subacute and unlikely to be an urgent medical concern. D - Pain in the knee following a total knee replacement (TKR) is common in the early postoperative period and is not unexpected.
3. Jane Love, a 35-year-old gravida III para II at 23 weeks gestation, is seen in the Emergency Department with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Jane reports that she has been feeling tired and has noticed ankle swelling in the evening. Laboratory tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 11.5 g/dL. After evaluating the situation, the nurse determines that Jane is at risk for placenta previa, based on which of the following data?
- A. anemia
- B. edema
- C. painless vaginal bleeding
- D. fatigue
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Placenta previa is a disorder where the placenta implants in the lower uterine segment, causing painless bleeding in the third trimester of pregnancy. The bleeding results from tearing of the placental villi from the uterine wall as the lower uterine segment contracts and dilates. It can be slight or profuse and can include bright red, painless bleeding. While anemia (choice A) may be a consequence of chronic bleeding from placenta previa, it is not a direct indicator. Edema (choice B) and fatigue (choice D) are nonspecific symptoms that can occur in pregnancy but are not specific to placenta previa.
4. One of the major functions of the kidneys in maintaining normal fluid balance is:
- A. the manufacture of antidiuretic hormone.
- B. the regulation of calcium and phosphate balance.
- C. the regulation of the pH of the extracellular fluid.
- D. the control of aldosterone levels.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'the regulation of the pH of the extracellular fluid.' The kidneys play a crucial role in maintaining normal fluid balance by regulating extracellular fluid and osmolarity through selective retention and excretion of fluids. Additionally, they regulate the pH of the extracellular fluid by retaining hydrogen ions and excreting metabolic wastes and toxic substances. Choice A is incorrect because antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is manufactured by the pituitary gland, not the kidneys. Choice B is incorrect as the regulation of calcium and phosphate balance is primarily controlled by the parathyroid gland. Choice D is incorrect as aldosterone levels are controlled by the adrenal glands, not the kidneys.
5. Which of the following classifications of medications is used to help decrease tremors for clients with hyperthyroidism?
- A. Steroids
- B. Anticonvulsants
- C. Beta blockers
- D. Iodine compounds
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Beta blockers. Beta blockers are commonly used to help decrease tremors in clients with hyperthyroidism by blocking the action of adrenaline. This helps to control symptoms such as rapid heart rate, tremors, and anxiety. Steroids (Choice A) are not typically used to treat tremors in hyperthyroidism. Anticonvulsants (Choice B) are primarily used to control seizures and are not the first-line treatment for tremors in hyperthyroidism. Iodine compounds (Choice D) are used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism by reducing the production of thyroid hormones but are not specifically indicated for tremor relief.
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