Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is preparing to assess the acoustic nerve during a neurological examination. To assess this nerve, the provider uses which technique?

• A. Uses a tuning fork
• B. Asks the client to puff out the cheeks
• C. Tests taste perception on the client's tongue
• D. Checks the client's ability to clench the teeth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Testing of cranial nerve VIII (acoustic nerve) involves assessing hearing acuity through techniques like the whispered voice test and tuning fork tests (Weber and Rinne). Using a tuning fork helps determine if sound lateralizes to one ear (Weber) and compares air conduction to bone conduction (Rinne). Asking the client to puff out the cheeks is for cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) function evaluation. Testing taste perception on the tongue assesses cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) function. Checking the ability to clench teeth assesses cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) motor function.

2. The nurse is assisting the RN with discharge instructions for a client with an implantable defibrillator. What discharge instruction is essential?

• A. "You can eat food prepared in a microwave."?
• B. "You should avoid moving the shoulder on the side of the defibrillator site for 6 weeks."?
• C. "You should use your cellphone on your right side."?
• D. "You will be able to fly on a commercial airliner with the defibrillator in place."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The essential discharge instruction for a client with an implantable defibrillator is to use any battery-operated machinery on the opposite side, including cellphones. This is to prevent interference with the device. Additionally, the client should monitor their pulse rate and report any dizziness or fainting, which could indicate issues with the defibrillator. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because clients with implantable defibrillators can eat food prepared in the microwave, move their shoulder on the affected side after the initial healing period, and are allowed to fly on commercial airliners with the defibrillator in place.

3. Implementing counseling by the nurse specialist for the raped victim represents:

• A. assessment.
• B. crisis intervention.
• C. empathetic concern.
• D. unwarranted intrusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B, crisis intervention, is the correct answer. Counseling by a nurse specialist in a rape crisis situation is a form of crisis intervention, which is part of the Crisis Intervention Model. It aims to provide immediate support and help the victim cope with the traumatic event. Empathetic concern (Choice C) is important but refers more to the nurse's attitude rather than the specific action described. Assessment (Choice A) typically involves gathering information and may have already been done before counseling. Unwarranted intrusion (Choice D) is not applicable here as the counseling is provided to support the victim in a professional and caring manner.

4. In which age group does the highest incidence of child abuse occur?

• A. Birth-3 years old
• B. 4-6 years old
• C. 6-10 years old
• D. More than 10 years old

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Birth-3 years old.' Children between birth and 3 years of age have the highest rates of victimization (at 16 per 1,000 children). This age group is most vulnerable due to their dependency and inability to report or protect themselves effectively. Child abuse can occur at any age, but statistics show that infants and toddlers are at the highest risk due to their developmental stage and reliance on caregivers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while child abuse can happen at any age, the prevalence is highest among children in the 0-3 age group.

5. A client receiving preoperative instructions asks questions repeatedly about when to stop eating the night before the procedure. The nurse tries to refocus the client. The nurse notes that the client is frequently startled by noises in the hall. Assessment reveals rapid speech, trembling hands, tachypnea, tachycardia, and elevated blood pressure. The client admits to feeling nervous and having trouble sleeping. Based on the assessment, the nurse documents that the client has:

• A. mild anxiety.
• B. moderate anxiety.
• C. severe anxiety.
• D. a panic attack.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'severe anxiety.' In severe anxiety, a person focuses on small or scattered details and is unable to solve problems. The client's symptoms of rapid speech, trembling hands, tachypnea, tachycardia, elevated blood pressure, feeling nervous, and having trouble sleeping indicate severe anxiety. Mild anxiety enhances the ability to learn and solve problems, while moderate anxiety narrows the perceptual field but allows the client to notice things brought to their attention. During a panic attack, a person is disorganized, hyperactive, or unable to speak or act, which is not the case in this scenario.

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