NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX Questions
1. While taking the vital signs of a pregnant client admitted to the labor unit, a nurse notes a temperature of 100.6�F, pulse rate of 100 beats/min, and respirations of 24 breaths/min. What is the most appropriate nursing action based on these findings?
- A. Notify the registered nurse of the findings.
- B. Document the findings in the client's medical record.
- C. Recheck the vital signs in 1 hour.
- D. Continue collecting subjective and objective data.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the registered nurse of the findings. In a pregnant client, the normal temperature range is 98�F to 99.6�F, with a pulse rate of 60 to 90 beats/min and respirations of 12 to 20 breaths/min. A temperature of 100.4�F or higher, along with an increased pulse rate and faster respirations, suggests a possible infection. Immediate notification of the registered nurse is crucial for further evaluation and intervention. While documenting the findings is essential, the priority lies in promptly escalating abnormal vital signs for assessment and management. Rechecking vital signs in 1 hour may delay necessary interventions for a deteriorating condition. Continuing to collect data is relevant but should not delay informing the registered nurse when abnormal vital signs are present.
2. When a woman is receiving postpartum epidural morphine, the nurse should plan to observe for which of the following side effects to occur within the first 3 hours?
- A. nausea and vomiting
- B. itching
- C. urinary retention
- D. somnolence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A side effect of postpartum epidural morphine is the onset of itching within 3 hours of injection and lasting up to 10 hours. Nausea and vomiting might occur 4-7 hours after injection. While urinary retention is a side effect of postpartum epidural morphine, it is not typically assessed within the first 3 hours. Somnolence is a rare side effect and not commonly observed within the first 3 hours. Therefore, itching is the most likely side effect to be observed within the initial 3 hours after administering postpartum epidural morphine.
3. An allergic reaction is classified as what type of pharmacological effect?
- A. a therapeutic effect
- B. a side effect
- C. an adverse effect
- D. an incompatibility
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An allergic reaction is classified as an adverse effect because it is an unintended response to a medication that requires treatment. A side effect is an undesired but somewhat expected reaction to a drug that does not necessarily need intervention. Incompatibility refers to an unsuitable combination of substances that leads to an adverse effect. A therapeutic effect is the desired and intended outcome of a medication.
4. A home health care nurse is visiting a male African American client who was recently discharged from the hospital. Which family member does the nurse ensure is present when teaching the client about his prescribed medications?
- A. The client's grandson
- B. The client's mother
- C. The client's father
- D. The client's son
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the African American family structure, the woman, especially the mother, often plays a central role in healthcare decisions and maintaining family health. It is essential for the nurse to involve the client's mother in teaching him about his prescribed medications as she may be responsible for his care and treatment decisions. While other family members may also be involved, the African American family is often matrifocal, emphasizing the importance of the mother's role. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to ensure the client's mother is present during medication teaching. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the traditional African American family structure and the role of women in healthcare decisions.
5. A sexually active married couple, discussing birth control methods with the nurse, expresses the need for a method that is convenient. Because the couple has told the nurse that family-planning goals have been met, which method of birth control does the nurse suggest?
- A. Diaphragm
- B. Sterilization
- C. Male condom
- D. Spermicide
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, since the couple has indicated that their family-planning goals have been met, a permanent method of contraception like sterilization would be most suitable. Sterilization offers long-term effectiveness and convenience once the decision to stop having children is made. Options like the diaphragm, male condom, or spermicide are more suitable for temporary contraception or when the family-planning goals have not yet been achieved. Therefore, the correct answer is sterilization, as it aligns with the couple's need for a convenient and permanent birth control method.
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