NCLEX NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. How can a nurse recognize that a chronic renal failure client’s AV shunt is patent?
- A. Absence of a bruit
- B. Presence of a thrill
- C. Blood return from the shunt
- D. Urine output greater than 30 ml/hr
Correct answer: Presence of a thrill
Rationale: The correct assessment to determine the patency of an AV shunt in a chronic renal failure client is the presence of a thrill. A thrill is a vibration or buzzing sensation felt over the shunt site, indicating good blood flow through the shunt. While the presence of a bruit is also important for assessing an AV shunt, a thrill is a more specific indicator of patency. Blood return from the shunt is related to cannulation and not necessarily an indicator of patency. Urine output greater than 30 ml/hr is not directly related to the assessment of an AV shunt's patency.
2. A nurse sees documentation in the client’s record indicating that the health care provider has noted the presence of adventitious breath sounds. The nurse knows that these types of sounds have which aspect?
- A. Normally heard in the lungs
- B. Hollow sounds heard over the trachea and larynx
- C. Rustling sounds heard over the peripheral lung fields
- D. Abnormal sounds that should not be heard in the lungs
Correct answer: Abnormal sounds that should not be heard in the lungs
Rationale: Adventitious breath sounds are abnormal sounds that are not normally heard in the lungs. These sounds are added sounds superimposed on the breath sounds. They are caused by air colliding with secretions in the tracheobronchial passageways or when previously deflated airways pop open. Hollow sounds heard over the trachea and larynx are normal bronchial (tracheal) breath sounds, not adventitious. Rustling sounds heard over the peripheral lung fields are normal vesicular breath sounds, not adventitious. Therefore, the correct answer is that adventitious breath sounds are abnormal sounds that should not be heard in the lungs.
3. An amniocentesis is scheduled for a pregnant client in the third trimester. The nurse informs the client that the most common indication for amniocentesis during the third trimester is for which reason?
- A. Determination of whether alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is present in the amniotic fluid
- B. Checking the amniotic fluid for intrauterine infection
- C. Determination of fetal lung maturity
- D. Checking the fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities
Correct answer: Determination of fetal lung maturity
Rationale: The most common indication for amniocentesis in the third trimester is the determination of fetal lung maturity. This assessment is essential to evaluate the fetus's readiness for extrauterine life. Checking for alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid is more commonly associated with midtrimester amniocentesis to identify chromosomal abnormalities. Assessing for intrauterine infection is not a primary reason for amniocentesis in the third trimester. While checking fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities is a common indication for midtrimester amniocentesis, it is not the most common indication in the third trimester.
4. A risk management program within a hospital is responsible for all of the following except:
- A. identifying risks.
- B. controlling financial loss due to malpractice claims.
- C. ensuring that staff follow their job descriptions.
- D. analyzing risks and trends to guide further interventions or programs.
Correct answer: ensuring that staff follow their job descriptions.
Rationale: A risk management program within a hospital is responsible for identifying risks, controlling financial loss due to malpractice claims, and analyzing risks and trends to guide further interventions or programs. It is not responsible for ensuring that staff follow their job descriptions. Monitoring staff adherence to their job descriptions falls under the purview of departmental managers or supervisors. The primary focus of a risk management program is to assess, mitigate, and manage risks related to patient safety, quality of care, and financial implications, rather than overseeing staff job descriptions.
5. A nurse is working in a pediatric clinic, and a 25-year-old mother comes in with a 4-week-old baby. The mother is stressed out about the loss of sleep, and the baby exhibits signs of colic. Which of the following techniques should the nurse teach the mother?
- A. Distraction of the infant with a red object
- B. Prone positioning techniques
- C. Tapping reflex techniques
- D. Neural warmth techniques
Correct answer: Neural warmth techniques
Rationale: Neural warmth techniques involve the caregiver providing a warm, soothing touch to the baby, which can help to lower the baby’s agitation level and promote relaxation. This technique is beneficial for calming colicky babies. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because distraction with a red object, prone positioning, and tapping reflex techniques are not effective methods for managing colic in infants. Red object distraction is not a proven technique for soothing colicky babies. Prone positioning is not recommended for infants due to the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Tapping reflex techniques are not recognized as effective interventions for colic.
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