the lpn is caring for a 9 month old infant which of these behaviors exhibited by the child warrants further investigation
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NCLEX-PN

Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions

1. The LPN is caring for a 9-month-old infant. Which of these behaviors exhibited by the child warrants further investigation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the child does not respond to her own name. By 9 months, children should be babbling simple words, crawling, and responding to their name. Not responding to one's name can be an early indicator of a potential developmental delay, warranting further investigation. Preferring crawling over walking, being distressed by new adults, and babbling 'mama' and 'dada' are typical behaviors for a 9-month-old and do not necessarily require immediate concern.

2. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of an older client with presbycusis. Which finding would the nurse expect to note in the client's record?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Presbycusis, a sensorineural hearing loss, is the most common form of hearing loss in older adults. Typically, the loss is bilateral, resulting in difficulty hearing high-pitched tones. The condition is revealed when the client has difficulty hearing whispered words in the voice test and consonants during conversational speech. Choice A is correct because it reflects the expected finding in presbycusis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because presbycusis does not result in improved hearing ability during conversational speech, unilateral conductive hearing loss, or difficulty hearing low-pitched tones.

4. A nurse assisting with data collection of a client gathers both subjective and objective data. Which finding would the nurse document as subjective data?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Subjective data are information provided by the client about their symptoms, feelings, or experiences. In this case, the client reporting having a rash is subjective data because it is based on what the client says. Choices A, B, and D involve observations or measurements made by the nurse (anxious appearance, blood pressure, reflexes), which fall under objective data. Objective data are observable and measurable data obtained through physical examination, vital signs assessment, and laboratory tests.

5. While a client is on total parenteral nutrition, which of the following values should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Glucose should be monitored closely when a client is on total parenteral nutrition due to the high glucose concentration in the solutions. Monitoring glucose levels is crucial to prevent complications such as hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Calcium and magnesium are usually monitored to assess electrolyte imbalances, while cholesterol levels are not directly impacted by total parenteral nutrition. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are not the primary values that need close monitoring during total parenteral nutrition.

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