Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is performing suctioning through an adult client's tracheostomy tube. The nurse notes that the client's oxygen saturation is 89% and terminates the procedure. Which action would the nurse take next?

• A. Rechecking the pulse oximetry reading
• B. Calling the respiratory therapist
• C. Calling the healthcare provider
• D. Oxygenating the client with 100% oxygen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's heart rate and pulse oximetry during suctioning to assess the client's tolerance of the procedure. Oxygen desaturation to below 90% indicates hypoxemia. If hypoxia occurs during suctioning, the nurse must terminate the procedure and oxygenate the client with 100% oxygen to address the hypoxemia promptly and ensure the client's safety. Rechecking the pulse oximetry reading is important, but the priority is to address the hypoxemia by providing oxygen. Contacting the healthcare provider or respiratory therapist is not necessary at this time as the nurse can manage the hypoxemia with oxygenation. Oxygenating the client with 100% oxygen is the immediate action required in this situation.

2. During an emergency procedure, is the surgical timeout a requirement?

• A. The surgical timeout should be performed by the surgical team unless it would cause a delay leading to injury or death.
• B. No, the timeout is not necessary during an emergency procedure.
• C. No, the surgical timeout is not required in emergency procedures.
• D. Yes, the surgical timeout must be performed in all cases.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an emergency procedure, the surgical timeout should be performed unless doing so would cause a delay leading to injury or death. This is because the primary goal during an emergency is to swiftly address the critical situation. Choice B is incorrect as it implies that the timeout is not necessary, which is not accurate. Choice C is also incorrect as it suggests that the timeout is not required in emergency procedures, disregarding safety protocols. Choice D is incorrect as it wrongly states that the timeout must be performed in all cases without considering the potential risks associated with delays during emergencies.

3. Following a classic cholecystectomy resection for multiple stones, the PACU nurse observes serosanguinous drainage on the dressing. The most appropriate intervention is to:

• A. notify the physician of the drainage.
• B. change the dressing.
• C. reinforce the dressing.
• D. apply an abdominal binder

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Serosanguinous drainage is expected after a classic cholecystectomy resection. The appropriate intervention is to reinforce the dressing to maintain pressure and promote clot formation. Changing the dressing prematurely increases the risk of infection as it disturbs the wound. Applying an abdominal binder is not indicated as it can interfere with visualizing the dressing and assessing for any signs of bleeding or infection. Notifying the physician is not necessary at this point unless there are signs of excessive bleeding or other concerning symptoms.

4. Which of the following syndromes associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord?

• A. Brown-S�quard syndrome
• B. posterior cord syndrome
• C. central cord syndrome
• D. cauda equina syndrome

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Brown-S�quard syndrome is indeed associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord, and it specifically results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord. This syndrome manifests as ipsilateral motor paralysis, ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Posterior cord syndrome mainly involves the loss of proprioception and vibratory sense, while sparing motor function and pain sensation. Central cord syndrome typically presents with more weakness in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities due to central spinal cord damage. Cauda equina syndrome affects the nerve roots at the level of the conus medullaris, leading to symptoms like lower extremity weakness, numbness, and bowel/bladder dysfunction.

5. How should the LPN document pain for a non-verbal client using the FLACC pain scale with these findings?

• A. 1
• B. 4
• C. 3
• D. 2

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: '4'. The FLACC pain scale assesses pain in non-verbal patients based on five categories: Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability. In this case, the client exhibits occasional grimacing (1 point), relaxed legs (0 points), squirming (1 point), moans and whimpers (1 point), and is distractible (1 point). Adding these points together results in a total pain score of 4. Therefore, the LPN should document a pain score of 4 for this non-verbal client. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the total pain score based on the given findings.

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