Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is performing suctioning through an adult client's tracheostomy tube. The nurse notes that the client's oxygen saturation is 89% and terminates the procedure. Which action would the nurse take next?

• A. Rechecking the pulse oximetry reading
• B. Calling the respiratory therapist
• C. Calling the healthcare provider
• D. Oxygenating the client with 100% oxygen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's heart rate and pulse oximetry during suctioning to assess the client's tolerance of the procedure. Oxygen desaturation to below 90% indicates hypoxemia. If hypoxia occurs during suctioning, the nurse must terminate the procedure and oxygenate the client with 100% oxygen to address the hypoxemia promptly and ensure the client's safety. Rechecking the pulse oximetry reading is important, but the priority is to address the hypoxemia by providing oxygen. Contacting the healthcare provider or respiratory therapist is not necessary at this time as the nurse can manage the hypoxemia with oxygenation. Oxygenating the client with 100% oxygen is the immediate action required in this situation.

2. The nurse is caring for a client recovering from a stroke who recently regained consciousness. The client is having difficulty communicating verbally with the team. Which of the following actions would be least appropriate?

• A. Begin client data collection before receiving the physician's order for the referral.
• B. Use documents to provide information for the referral.
• C. Wait for the physician's order for speech therapy before assisting with the appropriate documentation.
• D. Participate in the client referral process.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the least appropriate action would be to wait for the physician's order for speech therapy before assisting with the appropriate documentation. The nurse should start by collecting client data without needing the physician's order, use documents to provide information for the referral, and actively participate in the client referral process. Waiting for the physician's order unnecessarily delays potentially crucial therapy for the client's recovery, affecting the timeliness and effectiveness of care. Therefore, choice C is the least appropriate as immediate action is required in such situations.

3. What intervention should the nurse take for a client who has sustained a hyphema?

• A. Instruct the client to wear eye protectors in the future
• B. Keep the client at bed rest, typically with the head of the bed propped up
• C. Apply atropine eyedrops
• D. Apply an ice pack to the site of injury

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client who has sustained a hyphema is to keep them at bed rest, usually with the head of the bed raised. This positioning helps to reduce intraocular pressure and prevent further damage or rebleeding. Instructing the client to wear eye protectors in the future (Choice A) is not the immediate intervention required for a hyphema. Applying atropine eyedrops (Choice C) is not typically indicated for a hyphema. Applying an ice pack to the site of injury (Choice D) is not recommended for a hyphema as it can increase the risk of rebleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is to keep the client at bed rest.

4. How should the LPN document pain for a non-verbal client using the FLACC pain scale with these findings?

• A. 1
• B. 4
• C. 3
• D. 2

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: '4'. The FLACC pain scale assesses pain in non-verbal patients based on five categories: Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability. In this case, the client exhibits occasional grimacing (1 point), relaxed legs (0 points), squirming (1 point), moans and whimpers (1 point), and is distractible (1 point). Adding these points together results in a total pain score of 4. Therefore, the LPN should document a pain score of 4 for this non-verbal client. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the total pain score based on the given findings.

5. Which of these statements from the caregiver of a palliative care client indicates a proper understanding?

• A. This treatment plan usually indicates a prognosis of less than 6 months.
• B. We will need to stay in the hospital to receive this level of care.
• C. The main therapeutic goals are comfort and better quality of life.
• D. The medications to treat the underlying disease will be continued.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The main therapeutic goals are comfort and better quality of life.' This statement reflects a proper understanding of palliative care, which focuses on improving the patient's quality of life and providing comfort. It does not necessarily mean a prognosis of less than 6 months or require hospitalization. Choice A is incorrect because palliative care can be provided regardless of the prognosis. Choice B is wrong as palliative care can be administered in various settings, not just hospitals. Choice D is inaccurate as palliative care aims to improve symptoms and quality of life, so medications may be adjusted but not necessarily stopped.

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