which client is at risk for hypomagnesemia
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day

1. Which client is at risk for hypomagnesemia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the client admitted with alcohol abuse. Alcoholics tend to have poor nutrition due to decreased food intake, which is a common source of magnesium. Additionally, alcohol suppresses the release of ADH, leading to diuresis and magnesium loss. Choice A is incorrect because a history of heart disease does not directly increase the risk of hypomagnesemia. Choice B is incorrect as taking magnesium-based antacids would not put the client at risk for hypomagnesemia; in fact, it would help prevent it. Choice C is also incorrect as a parathyroid disorder is not typically associated with an increased risk of hypomagnesemia.

2. With a breech presentation, the nurse must be particularly alert for which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a breech presentation, the nurse must be particularly alert for a prolapsed umbilical cord. Prolapsed umbilical cord is a critical emergency situation where the umbilical cord descends into the vagina before the fetal presenting part, leading to compression between the presenting part and the maternal pelvis. This compression can compromise or completely cut off fetoplacental perfusion, endangering the fetus. Immediate delivery should be attempted to save the fetus. Quickening refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, ophthalmia neonatorum is an eye infection in newborns, and pica is a condition characterized by cravings for non-nutritive substances, none of which are directly related to the risks associated with a breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord.

3. The schizophrenic client who is admitted to the hospital for possible bowel obstruction has an NG tube and complains of pain. What should the nurse do at this time?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should administer the PRN (as needed) pain medication to address the schizophrenic client's complaint of pain. It is essential to provide relief and comfort to the client experiencing pain. Option A, decreasing stimuli and observing frequently, may not address the underlying cause of pain and delay relief. Option B, administering a sedative, does not target the pain but may mask symptoms. Option C, calling the physician immediately, while important in some situations, is not the most immediate action needed to alleviate the client's pain. Therefore, the most appropriate action at this time is to administer the PRN pain medication to help alleviate the client's discomfort.

4. Teaching about the need to avoid foods high in potassium is most important for which client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients with renal disease are predisposed to hyperkalemia and should avoid foods high in potassium. High potassium levels can further burden the kidneys and worsen the condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because clients receiving diuretic therapy, with an ileostomy, or with metabolic alkalosis are at risk for hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels. Therefore, these clients should actually be encouraged to eat foods high in potassium to maintain adequate levels and prevent complications associated with hypokalemia.

5. What type of diet is appropriate for a client with chronic cirrhosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct diet for a client with chronic cirrhosis is high calorie, low protein. Cirrhosis can lead to impaired protein metabolism, making it essential to limit protein intake. High-calorie foods help meet the client's energy needs. Choice B (High protein, high calorie) is incorrect because high protein intake can worsen hepatic encephalopathy. Choice C (Low fat, low sodium) is not the most appropriate diet for cirrhosis as the focus should be on calories and protein. Choice D (High calorie, low sodium) does not address the need to restrict protein intake, which is crucial in cirrhosis.

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