Nursing Elites

1. Which client is at risk for hypomagnesemia?

• A. Client with a history of heart disease
• B. Client taking magnesium-based antacids
• C. Client with a parathyroid disorder
• D. Client admitted with alcohol abuse

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the client admitted with alcohol abuse. Alcoholics tend to have poor nutrition due to decreased food intake, which is a common source of magnesium. Additionally, alcohol suppresses the release of ADH, leading to diuresis and magnesium loss. Choice A is incorrect because a history of heart disease does not directly increase the risk of hypomagnesemia. Choice B is incorrect as taking magnesium-based antacids would not put the client at risk for hypomagnesemia; in fact, it would help prevent it. Choice C is also incorrect as a parathyroid disorder is not typically associated with an increased risk of hypomagnesemia.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's arterial blood gas values. Which of the following conditions apply under the following values? pH- 7.49 Bicarbonate ion 24 mEq/dl PaCO2 - 31 mmHg PaO2 - 52 mmHg FiO2 - 0.22

• A. respiratory acidosis
• B. respiratory alkalosis
• C. metabolic acidosis
• D. metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The given blood gas values indicate respiratory alkalosis. A high pH and low PaCO2 level are consistent with respiratory alkalosis. In this scenario, no compensation for the alkalosis is noted, ruling out metabolic acidosis or alkalosis. Metabolic conditions would usually involve changes in bicarbonate levels, which remain within the normal range in this case.

3. Which of the following viruses is most likely to be acquired through casual contact with an infected individual?

• A. influenza virus
• B. herpes virus
• C. cytomegalovirus (CMV)
• D. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is influenza virus. Influenza virus is most likely to be acquired through casual contact with an infected individual as it is transmitted through respiratory droplets. Herpes virus is primarily transmitted by direct contact, such as skin-to-skin contact, making it less likely to be acquired through casual contact. HIV is mainly transmitted through blood and body fluids like semen and vaginal fluids, not through casual contact. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is an opportunistic infection commonly affecting immunocompromised individuals and is usually transmitted through close personal contact, not casual contact.

4. Paula is a 32-year-old woman seeking evaluation and treatment for major depressive symptoms. A major nursing priority during the assessment process includes which of the following?

• A. meaning of current stressors
• B. possibility of self-harm
• C. motivation to participate in treatment
• D. presence of alcohol or other drug use

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to consider the possibility of self-harm during the assessment process. This is crucial because unless the client is first assessed for self-harm or suicide potential, the necessary degree of vigilance in the client's environment may not be observed. While understanding the meaning of current stressors is important for treatment planning, ensuring the client's safety takes precedence. Motivation to participate in treatment and the presence of alcohol or other drug use are also important aspects to assess but ensuring the client's safety is the top priority in this scenario.

5. After a client with an Automated Internal Cardiac Defibrillator (AICD) is successfully defibrillated for Ventricular Fibrillation (VF), what should the nurse do next?

• A. Go to the client to assess for signs and symptoms of decreased cardiac output.
• B. Call the physician to inform them of the VF episode for medication adjustments.
• C. Call the 'on-call' person in the cath lab to re-charge the ICD in case of a recurrence.
• D. Document the incident on the code report form and follow up regularly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a client is successfully defibrillated, the immediate priority is to assess the client for signs and symptoms of decreased cardiac output, such as altered level of consciousness, chest pain, shortness of breath, or hypotension. This assessment is crucial to determine the effectiveness of the defibrillation and the client's current hemodynamic status. Calling the physician for medication adjustments without assessing the client first could delay essential interventions. Contacting the 'on-call' person in the cath lab to re-charge the ICD is not the initial action needed after successful defibrillation. Documenting the incident is important but should not take precedence over assessing the client's immediate condition.

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