NCLEX-PN
Quizlet NCLEX PN 2023
1. In Parkinson's disease, a client's difficulty in performing voluntary movements is known as:
- A. Akinesia.
- B. Dyskinesia.
- C. Chorea.
- D. Dystonia.
Correct answer: C.
Rationale: In Parkinson's disease, the client's difficulty in performing voluntary movements is termed dyskinesia. Dyskinesia refers to the impairment of the ability to execute voluntary muscle movements. Akinesia, on the other hand, refers to the absence or lack of voluntary movement. Chorea is characterized by involuntary, rapid, irregular movements. Dystonia involves sustained muscle contractions resulting in abnormal postures or twisting movements. Therefore, dyskinesia is the specific term used for the described difficulty in Parkinson's disease.
2. The nurse overhears two nursing students talking about a client in the cafeteria. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Report the incident to the nursing supervisor.
- B. Write up a variance report about the incident.
- C. Instruct the students that this is a violation of HIPAA.
- D. Notify the students' faculty regarding the violation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the students that discussing a client in a public area like the cafeteria violates HIPAA regulations. This is important to educate the students about patient confidentiality and the consequences of breaching it. Reporting to the nursing supervisor or faculty should come after addressing the students directly. Writing up a variance report is not the immediate action needed in this situation, as educating the students about their mistake should be the priority. It is essential to address the issue at the source by educating the students first rather than escalating the matter to supervisors or faculty immediately.
3. In the Emergency Department (ED), which client should the nurse see first?
- A. COPD client with a non-productive cough
- B. Diabetic client who has an infected sore on the foot
- C. Client with adrenal insufficiency who feels weak
- D. Client with a fracture of the forearm in an air splint
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the Emergency Department, the priority is to assess and manage clients based on the urgency of their conditions. A client with adrenal insufficiency presenting with weakness should be seen first as this could indicate a state of shock, which requires immediate attention to stabilize the client's condition. Weakness in adrenal insufficiency can progress rapidly to a life-threatening adrenal crisis. Choice A, a COPD client with a non-productive cough, may need treatment but is not immediately life-threatening. Choice B, a diabetic client with an infected sore on the foot, requires timely care to prevent complications but can generally wait for evaluation compared to the potential urgency of adrenal insufficiency. Choice D, a client with a fracture of the forearm in an air splint, is important but not as time-sensitive as a client potentially in shock.
4. The client with ulcerative colitis calls the clinic and reports increasing abdominal pain and increased frequency of loose stools. He asks to clarify what type of diet he is to follow. Which diet is best for clients with ulcerative colitis?
- A. High vitamin
- B. High calorie
- C. Low sugar
- D. Low fiber
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Low fiber.' Clients with ulcerative colitis should follow a low-residue diet, which means consuming low fiber to reduce the frequency and volume of stools, helping to alleviate symptoms such as abdominal pain and diarrhea. High fiber diets can worsen the condition by stimulating bowel movements. Choice A, 'High vitamin,' is incorrect as the focus is on fiber content rather than vitamins. Choice B, 'High calorie,' is not specifically recommended for ulcerative colitis and may not address the symptoms effectively. Choice C, 'Low sugar,' does not directly address the dietary needs of clients with ulcerative colitis as the issue is more related to fiber intake than sugar consumption.
5. Which of the following conditions places a client at risk for developing cirrhosis?
- A. Type I diabetes
- B. Alcoholism
- C. Leukemia
- D. Glaucoma
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Alcoholism places a client at risk for developing cirrhosis due to the liver damage caused by excessive alcohol consumption. Type I diabetes, leukemia, and glaucoma are not directly associated with cirrhosis. While diabetes can lead to other health complications, it does not directly cause cirrhosis. Leukemia is a type of blood cancer that does not affect the liver in a way that leads to cirrhosis. Glaucoma is an eye condition that has no direct link to cirrhosis.
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