Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assisting with data collection on the language development of a 9-month-old infant. Which developmental milestone does the nurse expect to note in an infant of this age?

• A. The infant babbles single consonants
• B. The infant babbles
• C. The infant says 'Mama.'
• D. The infant says 'Mama.'

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An 8- to 9-month-old infant can string vowels and consonants together. The first words, such as 'Mama,' 'Daddy,' 'bye-bye,' and 'baby,' begin to have meaning. A 1- to 3-month-old infant produces cooing sounds. Babbling is common in a 3- to 4-month-old. Single-consonant babbling occurs between 6 and 8 months of age. Therefore, the milestone of the infant saying 'Mama' is the most appropriate for a 9-month-old, indicating early language development. The other choices are developmentally inaccurate for a 9-month-old infant.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia related to a stroke. The nurse works with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration. What is this an example of?

• A. Health promotion
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Primary prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse working with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention to prevent complications or worsening of a condition. In this case, the nurse is helping to prevent aspiration pneumonia by providing education and guidance on safe eating and drinking practices after the client has already experienced dysphagia due to a stroke. Choice A, health promotion, focuses on empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to improve overall well-being and prevent illness. It is more about promoting general health rather than specific interventions related to a particular condition like dysphagia. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and rehabilitating a condition to prevent further complications or disabilities. In this scenario, the nurse is not yet addressing complications but rather actively preventing them. Choice D, primary prevention, aims to prevent the onset of a disease or condition before it occurs. The client in this case already has dysphagia, so the focus is on preventing further complications, making it a secondary prevention intervention.

3. A woman in labor whose cervix is not completely dilated is pushing strenuously during contractions. Which method of breathing should the nurse encourage the woman to perform to help her overcome the urge to push?

• A. Holding her breath and using the Valsalva maneuver
• B. Blowing repeatedly in short puffs
• C. Cleansing breaths
• D. Deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end, respectively, of each contraction

Correct answer: B

Rationale: If a woman pushes strenuously before the cervix is completely dilated, she risks injury to the cervix and the fetal head. Blowing prevents closure of the glottis and breath-holding, helping overcome the urge to push strenuously. The woman would be encouraged to blow repeatedly, using short puffs, when the urge to push is strong. This breathing technique allows for controlled exhalation and helps prevent unnecessary pushing. Cleansing breaths (deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end of each contraction) are encouraged during the first stage of labor to provide oxygenation and reduce myometrial hypoxia and to promote relaxation. Holding her breath and using the Valsalva maneuver (choice A) is not recommended as it can increase intra-abdominal pressure and decrease venous return, potentially compromising fetal oxygenation. Deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end of each contraction (choice D) are more suitable for relaxation and oxygenation purposes rather than managing the urge to push.

4. A healthcare provider is assisting with data collection on a client for the major risk factors associated with coronary artery disease (CAD). Which modifiable risk factor does the healthcare provider obtain data on from the client?

• A. Age
• B. Ethnicity
• C. Hypertension
• D. Genetic inheritance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypertension.' Risk factors for CAD are categorized as modifiable and unmodifiable. Unmodifiable risk factors include age, sex, ethnicity, genetic predisposition, and family history of heart disease. Modifiable risk factors include increased concentrations of serum lipids, hypertension, cigarette smoking, obesity, and level of physical activity. In this case, hypertension is a modifiable risk factor that the healthcare provider would obtain data on. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because age, ethnicity, and genetic inheritance are unmodifiable risk factors for CAD, not modifiable ones.

5. The LPN needs to determine the client's respiratory rate. What is the best technique to do this?

• A. Tell the client you need to count their respiratory rate.
• B. Subtly watch the client from across the room when they are doing an activity.
• C. Ask the client to sit still for 30 seconds.
• D. Count respirations while pretending to check the client's pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best technique to determine a client's respiratory rate is to count respirations while pretending to check the client's pulse. You should not inform the client that you are counting their respirations, as this might lead to a change in their breathing pattern. Pretending to check the pulse allows you to be close to the client without revealing that you are assessing their respiratory rate. Asking the client to sit still may not be as effective, as it may cause them to concentrate on their breathing. Watching from across the room may not provide an accurate assessment of respirations, as they might be difficult to observe.

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