Nursing Elites

1. A mother brings her 1-year-old child to the clinic. The child has no record of previous immunizations, and the mother confirms the child has not been immunized. Teaching by the nurse should include which of the following?

• A. Immunizations may be started at any age.
• B. The recommended immunization schedule should be followed.
• C. If a primary series of immunizations is interrupted, it can be continued.
• D. Delaying the start of vaccines does not increase the risk of reaction.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Immunizations may be started at any age.' While there is a recommended immunization schedule, immunizations can be initiated at any age. It is essential to emphasize the flexibility in starting immunizations. The statement 'The recommended immunization schedule should be followed' is too rigid; while recommended, there is flexibility in initiation. Choice C is correct as an interrupted series can be continued without restarting. The statement 'Delaying the start of vaccines does not increase the risk of reaction' is correct. Delaying does not increase the risk of reaction; in fact, it is important to start immunizations to protect the child and the community.

2. When a woman is receiving postpartum epidural morphine, the nurse should plan to observe for which of the following side effects to occur within the first 3 hours?

• A. nausea and vomiting
• B. itching
• C. urinary retention
• D. somnolence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A side effect of postpartum epidural morphine is the onset of itching within 3 hours of injection and lasting up to 10 hours. Nausea and vomiting might occur 4-7 hours after injection. While urinary retention is a side effect of postpartum epidural morphine, it is not typically assessed within the first 3 hours. Somnolence is a rare side effect and not commonly observed within the first 3 hours. Therefore, itching is the most likely side effect to be observed within the initial 3 hours after administering postpartum epidural morphine.

3. Which of the following statements is correct about Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

• A. There are psychosocial interventions that may be applicable to all of the levels.
• B. There are physical interventions that may be applicable to all of the levels.
• C. Two of the levels may require physical intervention while four of the levels may require psychosocial intervention.
• D. Four of the levels may require physical intervention, while two of the levels may require psychosocial intervention.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement about Maslow's hierarchy of needs is that two of the levels may require physical intervention while four of the levels may require psychosocial intervention. Maslow's theory suggests that physiological and safety needs are more basic and may require physical interventions, while social, esteem, and self-actualization needs are more psychosocial. Choices A and B are incorrect as they wrongly suggest that all levels may require only one type of intervention. Choice D is incorrect because it inaccurately represents the balance of physical and psychosocial interventions in Maslow's hierarchy of needs.

4. A healthcare professional is assisting with data collection of a client with suspected cholecystitis. Which finding does the healthcare professional expect to note if cholecystitis is present?

• A. Homan sign
• B. Murphy sign
• C. Blumberg sign
• D. McBurney sign

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Murphy sign. The Murphy sign is an indicator of gallbladder disease. It involves the examiner placing fingers under the liver border while the client inhales. If the gallbladder is inflamed, it descends onto the fingers, causing pain. The Homan sign is associated with pain in the calf area upon sharp dorsiflexion of the foot, indicating deep vein thrombosis. The Blumberg sign is the presence of rebound tenderness on palpation of the abdomen, indicating peritoneal irritation. The McBurney sign is indicative of appendicitis, presenting as severe pain and tenderness upon palpation at McBurney's point in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen.

5. A nurse notes that a client's physical examination record states that the client's eyes moved normally through the six cardinal fields of gaze. The nurse interprets this to mean that which aspect of eye function is normal?

• A. Near vision
• B. Central vision
• C. Peripheral vision
• D. Ocular movements

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Ocular movements.' Moving the eyes through the six cardinal fields of gaze evaluates the function of the eye muscles, such as the medial rectus muscle, superior rectus muscle, superior oblique muscle, lateral rectus muscle, inferior rectus muscle, and inferior oblique muscle. Normal movement in these fields indicates proper ocular movements. Near vision is assessed using a handheld vision screener, central vision with a Snellen chart, and peripheral vision through the confrontation test. Therefore, the evaluation of ocular movements through the six cardinal fields of gaze specifically assesses this aspect of eye function. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they pertain to different aspects of vision function that are evaluated using distinct assessment methods, not through the six cardinal fields of gaze.

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