NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. A healthcare provider is assisting with data collection on a client for the major risk factors associated with coronary artery disease (CAD). Which modifiable risk factor does the healthcare provider obtain data on from the client?
- A. Age
- B. Ethnicity
- C. Hypertension
- D. Genetic inheritance
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypertension.' Risk factors for CAD are categorized as modifiable and unmodifiable. Unmodifiable risk factors include age, sex, ethnicity, genetic predisposition, and family history of heart disease. Modifiable risk factors include increased concentrations of serum lipids, hypertension, cigarette smoking, obesity, and level of physical activity. In this case, hypertension is a modifiable risk factor that the healthcare provider would obtain data on. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because age, ethnicity, and genetic inheritance are unmodifiable risk factors for CAD, not modifiable ones.
2. A 45-year-old client with type I diabetes is in need of support services upon discharge from a skilled rehabilitation unit. Which of the following services is an example of a skilled support service?
- A. shopping for groceries
- B. house cleaning
- C. transportation to physician's visits
- D. medication instruction
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is medication instruction. This is a skilled service that requires specialized knowledge and training to provide proper guidance on medication management for a client with type I diabetes. Grocery shopping, house cleaning, and transportation services are considered unskilled services as they are typically offered by volunteer or fee-for-service agencies and do not require specialized medical expertise. Medication instruction, on the other hand, involves educating the client on how to properly take medications, understand potential side effects, and manage their medication regimen effectively, which necessitates a high level of expertise and training.
3. During the examination of a client's throat, a nurse touches the posterior wall with a tongue blade and elicits the gag reflex. The nurse documents normal function of which cranial nerves?
- A. Cranial nerves V and VI
- B. Cranial nerves XII and VIII
- C. Cranial nerves XII and VIII
- D. Cranial nerves IX and X
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve). When the nurse touches the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and elicits the gag reflex, it indicates normal function of these nerves. Cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VI (abducens nerve) are not directly responsible for the gag reflex. Cranial nerves XII (hypoglossal nerve) and VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve) are not directly involved in eliciting the gag reflex. Testing cranial nerve I involves smell function, and cranial nerve II is related to eye examinations, making them irrelevant in this scenario.
4. The LPN is caring for a client newly diagnosed with HIV. Which statement made by the client regarding antiretroviral therapy (ART) would require correction from the nurse?
- A. "If I start ART and use condoms, I'm less likely to transmit HIV to my partner."?
- B. "I can still use ART even though I am Hepatitis C positive."?
- C. "I will need to be on ART indefinitely."?
- D. "I know I will need to come back for blood draws so that I can begin ART when my CD4 count is over 1,000 cells/mm3."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is the statement, "I know I will need to come back for blood draws so that I can begin ART when my CD4 count is over 1,000 cells/mm3."? This statement would require correction from the nurse because initiating ART when the CD4 count is over 1,000 cells/mm3 is not supported by guidelines. The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends making treatment a priority for those with a CD4 count of ?350 cells/mm3, as early intervention can help delay disease progression. Therefore, waiting for a CD4 count of over 1,000 cells/mm3 is not in line with current recommendations. Choice A is correct, as studies have shown that using condoms along with ART can significantly reduce the risk of HIV transmission to sexual partners. Choice B is also correct because being Hepatitis C positive does not contraindicate the use of ART. Choice C is correct as well, as ART is typically needed indefinitely to maintain viral suppression and manage HIV. Therefore, the only statement that would require correction is Choice D.
5. Which of the following physical findings indicates that an 11-12-month-old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip?
- A. refusal to walk
- B. not pulling to a standing position
- C. negative Trendelenburg sign
- D. negative Ortolani sign
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'not pulling to a standing position.' An 11-12-month-old child not pulling to a standing position may be at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip. By this age, children typically pull to a standing position, and failure to do so should raise concerns. Refusal to walk is a broader observation and not specific to hip dysplasia. The Trendelenburg sign indicates weakness of the gluteus medius muscle, not hip dysplasia. The Ortolani sign is used to detect congenital subluxation or dislocation of the hip, which is different from developmental dysplasia of the hip.
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