Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following adverse effects should the client on Floxin be alerted to?

• A. stunting of height in teens and young adults
• B. propensity for anovulatory uterine bleeding
• C. intractable diarrhea
• D. tendon rupture

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is tendon rupture. Floxin is a quinolone antibiotic commonly used in respiratory infections and pelvic/reproductive infections. One of the rare adverse effects associated with quinolones is tendon sheath rupture, often affecting the Achilles tendon. Therefore, patients taking Floxin should be alerted to the possibility of tendon rupture. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not typically associated with Floxin use and are not common adverse effects of quinolone antibiotics. Stunting of height is not a recognized adverse effect of Floxin. Anovulatory uterine bleeding is not a known side effect of quinolones. Intractable diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of Floxin.

2. Which of the following behaviors is least appropriate when dealing with fellow staff members?

• A. Provide positive feedback and constructive criticism
• B. Serve as a resource
• C. Only report conflicts that interfere with client care
• D. Provide input for performance evaluations

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The least appropriate behavior when dealing with fellow staff members is to only report conflicts that interfere with client care. This choice implies ignoring or neglecting other conflicts that may affect team dynamics and the work environment. It is crucial to address and report all conflicts, whether they impact client care directly or not, to maintain a harmonious and effective working relationship within the healthcare setting. Providing positive feedback, constructive criticism, serving as a resource, and offering input for performance evaluations are all important and appropriate behaviors that contribute to a supportive and professional work environment. By focusing solely on conflicts that interfere with client care, essential issues that influence teamwork and overall staff morale may be overlooked, potentially leading to a negative impact on the work environment.

3. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:

• A. Primary prevention.
• B. Secondary prevention.
• C. Tertiary prevention.
• D. Disability prevention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.

4. A client with a left arm fracture complains of severe diffuse pain that is unrelieved by pain medication. On further assessment, the nurse notes that the client experiences increased pain during passive motion compared with active motion of the left arm. Based on these assessment findings, which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Contacting the health care provider
• B. Checking if it is time for more pain medication
• C. Encouraging the client to continue active range of motion exercises of the left arm
• D. Repositioning the client for comfort

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to contact the health care provider. The client with early acute compartment syndrome typically complains of severe diffuse pain that is unrelieved by pain medication. Additionally, the affected client experiences greater pain during passive motion compared to active motion. In this situation, it is crucial to notify the health care provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention. Contacting the health care provider is essential to ensure timely diagnosis and appropriate management of the condition. Checking for more pain medication, encouraging active range of motion exercises, or repositioning the client may not address the underlying issue of acute compartment syndrome and could delay necessary interventions. Therefore, the priority action should be to involve the healthcare provider for prompt assessment and treatment.

5. Which type of diet should the nurse provide to help a client who has major burns maintain a positive nitrogen balance?

• A. high protein
• B. high carbohydrate
• C. low carbohydrate
• D. low protein

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with major burns are in a hypermetabolic state, leading to increased protein catabolism. Therefore, a high-protein diet is essential to help them maintain a positive nitrogen balance and support wound healing. High carbohydrate diets do not directly contribute to achieving a positive nitrogen balance, making choice B incorrect. Similarly, low carbohydrate diets are not recommended for clients with major burns as carbohydrates provide essential energy needed for healing. Low protein diets are contraindicated for clients with major burns as they require higher protein intake to support tissue repair and prevent further breakdown.

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