the client on floxin must be alerted to which of the following adverse effects

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Questions Management of Care

1. Which of the following adverse effects should the client on Floxin be alerted to?

A. stunting of height in teens and young adults
B. propensity for anovulatory uterine bleeding
C. intractable diarrhea
D. tendon rupture

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is tendon rupture. Floxin is a quinolone antibiotic commonly used in respiratory infections and pelvic/reproductive infections. One of the rare adverse effects associated with quinolones is tendon sheath rupture, often affecting the Achilles tendon. Therefore, patients taking Floxin should be alerted to the possibility of tendon rupture. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not typically associated with Floxin use and are not common adverse effects of quinolone antibiotics. Stunting of height is not a recognized adverse effect of Floxin. Anovulatory uterine bleeding is not a known side effect of quinolones. Intractable diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of Floxin.

2. Which of the following is an indication for electroencephalography?

A. paralysis
B. neuropathy
C. seizure disorder
D. myocardial infarction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'seizure disorder.' Electroencephalography is used to assess clients with seizure disorders by recording the brain's electrical activity. Seizure disorder is a primary indication for an EEG as it helps in diagnosing and managing seizure activity. Paralysis (choice A) is not typically an indication for an EEG as it relates to loss of muscle function rather than brain activity. Neuropathy (choice B) involves nerve damage and is not directly assessed by an EEG. Myocardial infarction (choice D) is related to heart issues and is not a condition that an EEG is used to diagnose.

3. A client admitted to the hospital has a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order in his medical record. The nurse understands which information about DNR orders?

A. The only individuals who may change the DNR order are healthcare providers
B. The DNR order can be changed if the client's condition warrants it
C. The DNR order does not remain fixed for the duration of the client's hospitalization
D. The DNR order requires frequent review as specified by state or agency policy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that the DNR order requires frequent review as specified by state or agency policy. If the client's condition changes, the DNR order may need to be changed. For this reason, DNR orders require frequent review as specified by state or agency policy. A DNR order may be changed at any time and does not remain in effect for the duration of the client's hospitalization. The client's request regarding DNR status is the priority. Choice A is incorrect because healthcare providers, not just immediate family members, may change the DNR order based on the client's condition. Choice B is incorrect as DNR orders can be changed if the client's condition warrants it, not remaining unchanged. Choice C is incorrect as DNR orders are not fixed for the duration of hospitalization, they can be modified based on the client's needs.

4. The LPN is checking for residual before administering enteral feeding through a PEG tube. Which of these steps is incorrect?

A. The LPN elevates the head of the bed by at least 30 degrees.
B. If the residual is greater than 200mL, the LPN should not administer the enteral feeding.
C. The LPN should discard the residual before administering the tube feeding.
D. The residual pH level is tested to ensure appropriate placement.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The incorrect step is choice C. The residual should be discarded before administering the tube feeding. Discarding the residual is essential to prevent contamination and ensure accurate measurement of the enteral feeding. Elevating the head of the bed by at least 30 degrees (choice A) is correct as it helps prevent aspiration during feeding. Testing the pH level of the residual (choice D) ensures proper placement of the tube. Withholding feeding if the residual is greater than 200mL (choice B) is crucial to prevent overfeeding, making this statement correct.

5. Priorities designated as intermediate by the nurse are:

A. the nonemergency, non-life-threatening needs of the client.
B. those tasks that can be delegated to assistive personnel.
C. those tasks that can be performed at the end of the shift.
D. those tasks that can be performed at any time

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Priorities designated as intermediate by the nurse are those that are not urgent but still important, such as the nonemergency, non-life-threatening needs of the client. They do not impact the client's immediate physiological status but require attention. Intermediate priorities may need the skill level of an RN for completion and may have specific time requirements. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the priority being intermediate doesn't mean it can be delegated, done at a specific time, or done at any time; it simply indicates a non-urgent but necessary task for the client's well-being.