NCLEX-PN
Nclex Questions Management of Care
1. Which of the following adverse effects should the client on Floxin be alerted to?
- A. stunting of height in teens and young adults
- B. propensity for anovulatory uterine bleeding
- C. intractable diarrhea
- D. tendon rupture
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is tendon rupture. Floxin is a quinolone antibiotic commonly used in respiratory infections and pelvic/reproductive infections. One of the rare adverse effects associated with quinolones is tendon sheath rupture, often affecting the Achilles tendon. Therefore, patients taking Floxin should be alerted to the possibility of tendon rupture. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not typically associated with Floxin use and are not common adverse effects of quinolone antibiotics. Stunting of height is not a recognized adverse effect of Floxin. Anovulatory uterine bleeding is not a known side effect of quinolones. Intractable diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of Floxin.
2. All of the following clients are in need of an emergency assessment except:
- A. a bleeding client who has an injury from falling debris.
- B. an unresponsive client.
- C. a client with an old injury.
- D. a pregnant woman with imminent delivery.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'a client with an old injury.' Emergency assessments are required for immediate and life-threatening situations. Clients A, B, and D are in need of emergency assessments due to their critical conditions. Choice C, a client with an old injury, does not require an emergency assessment as it is not an acute or life-threatening situation. While the client with an old injury may still need medical attention, it does not necessitate an emergency assessment as the condition is not currently life-threatening or in need of immediate intervention.
3. While taking care of a client, the nurse thinks that physical therapy in the hospital might be beneficial to their condition. The following is the ideal referral process EXCEPT?
- A. Transport the client to the physical therapy room for treatment after receiving an official referral.
- B. Provide the physical therapist with the client's medical record after the referral.
- C. Contact the client's primary care provider to suggest a physical therapy referral.
- D. Request the client to self-refer to the physical therapist.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The ideal referral process for a client to receive physical therapy in the hospital starts with the nurse contacting the client's primary care provider to discuss and suggest a physical therapy referral. The primary care provider should provide an official referral, which is crucial for initiating the treatment process. After obtaining the official referral, the nurse should provide the physical therapist with the client's medical record. This step is essential for the therapist to assess the client's condition and customize the treatment plan accordingly. Once the physical therapist is informed and prepared, the nurse can then transport the client to the physical therapy room for treatment. Therefore, the correct sequence is to first contact the primary care provider (Choice C), then provide the medical record (Choice B), and finally transport the client for treatment (Choice A). Choice D, suggesting the client self-refer to the physical therapist, is incorrect as the referral process should involve healthcare professionals to ensure proper assessment and treatment planning.
4. Which of the following indicates a hazard for a client on oxygen therapy?
- A. A 'No Smoking' sign is on the door.
- B. The client is wearing a synthetic gown.
- C. Electrical equipment is grounded.
- D. Matches are removed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is that the client is wearing a synthetic gown. A synthetic gown might generate sparks of static electricity, which can be a fire hazard, especially in the presence of oxygen. Clients on oxygen therapy should wear cotton gowns to minimize the risk of fire. The other options are not hazards for a client on oxygen therapy: having a 'No Smoking' sign on the door promotes safety by preventing smoking, ensuring electrical equipment is grounded reduces the risk of electrical hazards, and removing matches decreases the risk of fire hazards.
5. When are standard walkers typically used?
- A. When clients have poor balance, cannot stand up, have weak arms, and good hand strength.
- B. When clients have poor balance, have a broken leg, or have experienced amputation.
- C. When clients have poor balance, have cardiac problems, or cannot use crutches or a cane.
- D. When clients have poor balance, have an autoimmune disease, or have weak arms.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Standard walkers are typically used for clients who have poor balance, cardiac problems, or those who cannot use crutches or a cane. The rationale is correct in stating that a walker is suitable for individuals needing to bear partial weight and having strength in their wrists and arms to propel the walker forward. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the main reasons why standard walkers are used in clinical practice. Using a walker is not solely about having weak arms, good hand strength, a broken leg, experienced amputation, or an autoimmune disease. The primary focus is on addressing balance issues, cardiac problems, or the inability to use crutches or a cane effectively.
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