Nursing Elites

1. What intervention should the nurse take for a client who has sustained a hyphema?

• A. Instruct the client to wear eye protectors in the future
• B. Keep the client at bed rest, typically with the head of the bed propped up
• C. Apply atropine eyedrops
• D. Apply an ice pack to the site of injury

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client who has sustained a hyphema is to keep them at bed rest, usually with the head of the bed raised. This positioning helps to reduce intraocular pressure and prevent further damage or rebleeding. Instructing the client to wear eye protectors in the future (Choice A) is not the immediate intervention required for a hyphema. Applying atropine eyedrops (Choice C) is not typically indicated for a hyphema. Applying an ice pack to the site of injury (Choice D) is not recommended for a hyphema as it can increase the risk of rebleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is to keep the client at bed rest.

2. Which of the following clients requires airborne precautions?

• A. a client with fever, chills, vomiting, and diarrhea
• B. a client suspected of varicella (chickenpox)
• C. a client with abdominal pain and purpura
• D. a client diagnosed with AIDS

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'a client suspected of varicella (chickenpox).' Chickenpox is an acute, infectious airborne illness that requires airborne precautions, including wearing a respirator mask for direct contact with the patient. Choices A, C, and D do not typically require airborne precautions. Choice A describes symptoms that may indicate a gastrointestinal infection but do not require airborne precautions. Choice C mentions abdominal pain and purpura, which are not specific to an airborne illness. Choice D, a client diagnosed with AIDS, does not necessitate airborne precautions unless there are additional infectious conditions present that require such measures.

3. A nurse is planning to administer an oral antibiotic to a client with a communicable disease. The client refuses the medication and tells the nurse that the medication causes abdominal cramping. The nurse responds, 'The medication is needed to prevent the spread of infection, and if you don't take it orally I will have to give it to you in an intramuscular injection.' Which statement accurately describes the nurse's response to the client?

• A. The nurse is justified in administering the medication by way of the intramuscular route because the client has a communicable disease.
• B. The nurse could be charged with assault.
• C. Assault is an intentional threat to bring about harmful or offensive contact. If a nurse threatens to give a client a medication that the client refuses or threatens to give a client an injection without the client's consent, the nurse may be charged with assault. Therefore, the nurse is not justified in administering the medication. Battery is any intentional touching without the client's consent.
• D. The nurse will be justified in administering the medication by the intramuscular route once a prescription has been obtained from the health care provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer explains the concept of assault, which is an intentional threat to bring about harmful or offensive contact. In the scenario provided, the nurse's statement about administering the medication via an intramuscular injection without the client's consent constitutes a threat, potentially falling under the definition of assault. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse's action is not automatically justified solely by the client having a communicable disease. Choice D is also incorrect because even with a prescription, the nurse cannot administer the medication without the client's consent. Choice C provides a detailed explanation distinguishing assault from battery, which helps in understanding the legal implications of the nurse's response in this situation.

4. Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?

• A. variable decelerations
• B. early decelerations
• C. bradycardia
• D. tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Variable decelerations can indicate cord compression as they are caused by umbilical cord compression or prolapse. This pattern shows an abrupt decrease in heart rate with an erratic shape, often resembling a V or W. Early decelerations (choice B) are typically caused by head compression during contractions and are considered benign. Bradycardia (choice C) is a consistent low heart rate below 110 bpm and is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (choice D) is an abnormally high heart rate above 160 bpm and is not associated with cord compression.

5. During surgery, it is found that a client with adenocarcinoma of the rectum has positive peritoneal lymph nodes. What is the next most likely site of metastasis?

• A. brain
• B. bone
• C. liver
• D. mediastinum

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases of adenocarcinoma of the rectum with positive peritoneal lymph nodes, the most likely site of metastasis is the liver. Colon tumors commonly spread through the lymphatics and portal vein to the liver. While metastasis to the brain, bone, or mediastinum is possible, the liver is typically the first to be affected due to the anatomical pathways involved in colorectal cancer metastasis. Therefore, the correct answer is the liver. Metastasis to the brain, bone, or mediastinum would be less likely at this stage of colorectal cancer progression.

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