NCLEX-PN
NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient's right lower extremity. The extremity is warm to touch, red, and swollen. The patient is also running a low fever. Which of the following conditions would be the most likely cause of the patient's condition?
- A. Herpes
- B. Scleroderma
- C. Dermatitis
- D. Cellulitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The patient's presentation of a warm, red, swollen extremity with a low fever is indicative of cellulitis, which is inflammation of cellular tissue. Cellulitis is commonly associated with these symptoms due to a bacterial infection in the skin and underlying tissues. Herpes (Choice A) is a viral infection that typically presents with grouped vesicles, not the warm, red, swollen presentation seen in cellulitis. Scleroderma (Choice B) is a chronic autoimmune condition affecting the skin and connective tissue, presenting differently from the acute symptoms of cellulitis. Dermatitis (Choice C) refers to skin inflammation, which does not typically present with the described symptoms of warmth, redness, swelling, and low fever observed in cellulitis.
2. Clomiphene is prescribed for a female client to treat infertility. The nurse is providing information to the client and her spouse about the medication and provides the couple with which information?
- A. If the oral tablets are not successful, the medication will be administered intravenously.
- B. The couple should engage in coitus at least every other day during treatment.
- C. The physician should be notified immediately if breast engorgement occurs.
- D. Multiple births occur in a small percentage of clomiphene-facilitated pregnancies.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that multiple births (usually twins) occur in a small percentage (8% - 10%) of clomiphene-facilitated pregnancies. The couple should be informed about this potential outcome. Clomiphene is available in 50-mg tablets for oral use; there is no intravenous form of the medication. Breast engorgement is a common side effect of clomiphene that typically resolves after discontinuation of the medication. Ovulation usually happens 5 to 10 days after the last dose of clomiphene, and the couple is advised to engage in coitus at least every other day during this time. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide accurate information regarding clomiphene treatment for infertility.
3. Which of the following medications is a serotonin antagonist that might be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?
- A. metoclopramide (Reglan)
- B. ondansetron (Zofran)
- C. hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
- D. prochlorperazine (Compazine)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Zofran is a serotonin antagonist that can be used to relieve nausea and vomiting. Ondansetron (Zofran) works by blocking serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) and the gastrointestinal tract. This action helps reduce nausea and vomiting. Metoclopramide (Reglan) works as a dopamine antagonist and also has prokinetic effects, making it effective for different conditions. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril) is an antihistamine with antiemetic properties, but it does not act as a serotonin antagonist. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) is a dopamine antagonist that is also used to treat nausea and vomiting, but not as a serotonin antagonist like ondansetron.
4. The client diagnosed with end-stage liver disease has completed an advance directive and a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) document and wishes to receive palliative care. Which of the following would correspond to the client's wish for comfort care?
- A. Positioning frequently to prevent skin breakdown and providing pain management and other comfort measures
- B. Carrying out vigorous resuscitation efforts if the client were to stop breathing, but no resuscitation if the heart stops beating
- C. Providing intravenous fluids when the client becomes dehydrated
- D. Providing total parenteral nutrition (TPN) if the client is not able to eat
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Palliative care includes measures to prevent skin breakdown, pain management, and management of other symptoms that cause discomfort, as well as encouraging contact with family and friends. A DNR request precludes all resuscitative efforts related to respiratory or cardiac arrest, making choice B incorrect. Dehydration is a natural part of the dying process, so providing intravenous fluids as in choice C would not align with the client's wish for comfort care. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) as in choice D is an invasive procedure meant to prolong life and is not part of palliative care, which focuses on improving quality of life rather than extending it.
5. Which of the following injuries, presented by a client entering the Emergency Department, is the highest priority?
- A. open leg fracture
- B. open head injury
- C. stab wound to the chest
- D. traumatic amputation of a thumb
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A stab wound to the chest is the highest priority injury. This type of injury can lead to lung collapse and mediastinal shift, potentially resulting in death if left untreated. Treating an obstructed airway or a chest wound takes precedence over addressing hemorrhage. The principle of ABC (airway, breathing, and circulation) guides care decisions in prioritizing life-threatening situations. An open leg fracture, open head injury, and traumatic amputation of a thumb, while serious, do not pose an immediate threat to life compared to a stab wound to the chest. An open leg fracture may lead to significant blood loss but is not immediately life-threatening. An open head injury requires assessment and intervention but does not impact airway, breathing, or circulation directly. Traumatic amputation of a thumb is a serious injury but can be managed after addressing more life-threatening conditions.
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