Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient's right lower extremity. The extremity is warm to touch, red, and swollen. The patient is also running a low fever. Which of the following conditions would be the most likely cause of the patient's condition?

• A. Herpes
• B. Scleroderma
• C. Dermatitis
• D. Cellulitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient's presentation of a warm, red, swollen extremity with a low fever is indicative of cellulitis, which is inflammation of cellular tissue. Cellulitis is commonly associated with these symptoms due to a bacterial infection in the skin and underlying tissues. Herpes (Choice A) is a viral infection that typically presents with grouped vesicles, not the warm, red, swollen presentation seen in cellulitis. Scleroderma (Choice B) is a chronic autoimmune condition affecting the skin and connective tissue, presenting differently from the acute symptoms of cellulitis. Dermatitis (Choice C) refers to skin inflammation, which does not typically present with the described symptoms of warmth, redness, swelling, and low fever observed in cellulitis.

2. Which dietary consideration is most important for the nurse to teach to a client with hypothyroidism?

• A. Increase carbohydrate intake
• B. Increase fluid intake
• C. Avoid shellfish
• D. Increase fiber

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Increase fiber.' In hypothyroidism, clients often experience constipation due to decreased metabolic rate. Increasing fiber in the diet can help alleviate constipation. Choice A, 'Increase carbohydrate intake,' is incorrect as there is no specific need to increase carbohydrate intake in hypothyroidism. Choice B, 'Increase fluid intake,' is not directly related to managing hypothyroidism, although adequate hydration is generally important for overall health. Choice C, 'Avoid shellfish,' is commonly associated with hyperthyroidism due to its iodine content, not hypothyroidism.

3. A 70-year-old male who is recovering from a stroke exhibits signs of unilateral neglect. Which behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect?

• A. The client is observed shaving only one side of his face.
• B. The client is unable to distinguish between two tactile stimuli presented simultaneously.
• C. The client is unable to complete a range of vision without turning his head side to side.
• D. The client is unable to carry out cognitive and motor activity at the same time.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Unilateral neglect is a condition where a person ignores one side of their body. In this case, the behavior of shaving only one side of the face indicates neglect of the other side. This behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect as the individual is failing to attend to one side of their body. Choices B, C, and D are not associated with unilateral neglect. Choice B refers to tactile agnosia, a condition where a person cannot recognize objects by touch, not related to ignoring one side of the body. Choice C describes a visual field cut, which is a different visual deficit. Choice D relates to dual-task interference, not specific to ignoring one side of the body.

4. What is the priority nursing action for a laboring client dilated to 6 cm receiving an epidural?

• A. Continuous monitoring of maternal blood pressure.
• B. Frequent auscultation of the fetal heart rate.
• C. Administering an IV fluid bolus of at least 500 cc.
• D. Frequent monitoring of the maternal temperature.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing action for a laboring client dilated to 6 cm receiving an epidural is continuous monitoring of maternal blood pressure. This is crucial because epidural anesthesia can lead to a precipitous drop in blood pressure, which can be dangerous for both the mother and fetus by reducing cardiac output and placental perfusion. While frequent auscultation of the fetal heart rate is important, it is not the priority in this situation. Administering an IV fluid bolus of at least 500 cc may not be necessary if the client's blood pressure is stable. Monitoring the maternal temperature is also essential but takes precedence over blood pressure monitoring.

5. When discussing the child's wishes for future care, it is important for the nurse to first identify what the child knows about the disease and his prognosis. Factors such as the perceived severity of the illness will be significant in planning for end-of-life care. If the child does not understand the disease process or prognosis, the plan of care would not be effective or realistic. In addition, asking a child about desired interventions in the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest would not be an appropriate initial area of questioning. If the child does not understand the disease process, these questions may seem frightening or threatening. While exploring the child's belief about death would be important, it would not be the initial area of discussion and should be guided by the child rather than the nurse.

• A. What the child knows about the disease and his prognosis.
• B. How the child would like to handle the plan of care.
• C. What interventions the child would like in the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest.
• D. What the child believes about death.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When discussing the child's wishes for future care, it is essential to first determine what the child understands about the disease and his prognosis. This information is crucial for planning appropriate end-of-life care. If the child lacks comprehension of the illness and its prognosis, any care plan discussed would be ineffective and unrealistic. Inquiring about desired interventions during cardiac or respiratory arrest is not the initial step, as it may cause distress if the child lacks understanding. While exploring the child's beliefs about death is significant, it should not be the primary focus initially and should be approached based on the child's readiness, not the nurse's agenda. Therefore, the correct first step is to assess what the child knows about the disease and his prognosis.

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