Nursing Elites

1. A nurse discovers that another nurse has administered an enema to a client even though the client told the nurse that he did not want one. Which is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Report the incident to the nursing supervisor
• B. Confront the nurse who gave the enema and inform the nurse that she may face charges of battery
• C. Tell the client that the nurse did the right thing in giving the enema
• D. Contact the client's health care provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Battery is any intentional touching of a client without the client's consent, which violates the client's rights. If a nurse discovers such an incident, they should report it to the nursing supervisor. Confronting the nurse and threatening charges of battery could lead to unnecessary conflict. Telling the client that the nurse did the right thing is incorrect as it goes against the client's wishes. While the health care provider may need to be notified eventually, the first step should be reporting the incident to the nursing supervisor to address the violation appropriately.

2. A nurse is taking a morning break with the unit secretary in the nurses' lounge. The unit secretary says to the nurse, 'I read in Mr. Gage's medical record that he has gonorrhea.' How should the nurse respond to the secretary?

• A. Yes, he does, but be sure not to discuss this with anyone else.
• B. Yes, that's why we've imposed contact precautions.
• C. We can't discuss a client's medical condition.
• D. Oh, really? I didn't see that!

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client's medical condition is confidential and should never be discussed with anyone other than the client and the client's healthcare provider. Therefore, the nurse must tell the unit secretary that the client's condition is not to be discussed. Choices A and B confirm the client's disease, which is inappropriate as it breaches patient confidentiality. Choice D promotes further discussion of the client's condition, which is also inappropriate. The correct response is to firmly state, 'We can't discuss a client's medical condition,' to uphold patient privacy and confidentiality.

3. Which of the following syndromes associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord?

• A. Brown-Séquard syndrome
• B. posterior cord syndrome
• C. central cord syndrome
• D. cauda equina syndrome

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Brown-Séquard syndrome is indeed associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord, and it specifically results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord. This syndrome manifests as ipsilateral motor paralysis, ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Posterior cord syndrome mainly involves the loss of proprioception and vibratory sense, while sparing motor function and pain sensation. Central cord syndrome typically presents with more weakness in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities due to central spinal cord damage. Cauda equina syndrome affects the nerve roots at the level of the conus medullaris, leading to symptoms like lower extremity weakness, numbness, and bowel/bladder dysfunction.

4. Which of these clients should the LPN/LVN see first?

• A. a client with a newly placed NG tube who is complaining of pain around the face and a plugged nose
• B. a post-op prostatectomy client who complains of bladder spasms and blood in his foley bag
• C. a client in an arm cast who is 2 days post-op and reports feelings of numbness and tingling in her affected arm
• D. a client newly diagnosed with Hepatitis A who reports stomach pain and itchy skin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Numbness and tingling hours or days after a cast is applied may indicate compartment syndrome and should be reported to a medical provider right away. This is a potential emergency situation that requires immediate attention to prevent complications. The other options present expected or typical symptoms related to their diagnosis, which do not require immediate intervention. Complaints related to a newly placed NG tube such as pain around the face and a plugged nose may require assessment and intervention but are not as urgent as potential compartment syndrome. Bladder spasms and blood in the foley bag post-prostatectomy are common postoperative issues that can be addressed after the client in the arm cast with potential compartment syndrome is seen. Stomach pain and itchy skin in a client with Hepatitis A are common symptoms of the condition and do not indicate an emergency situation.

5. A client with dumping syndrome should ___________ while a client with GERD should ___________.

• A. lie down 1 hour after meals; sit up at least 30 minutes after meals
• B. sit up 1 hour after meals; lie flat 30 minutes after meals
• C. sit up after meals; sit up after meals
• D. lie down after meals; lie down after meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with dumping syndrome should lie down after eating to decrease the symptoms of dumping syndrome, which include rapid gastric emptying leading to various gastrointestinal symptoms. On the other hand, clients with GERD should sit up at least 30 minutes after meals to prevent the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus. This position helps reduce symptoms by allowing gravity to keep the stomach contents in place, minimizing the chances of reflux. Therefore, the correct answer is to lie down 1 hour after eating for dumping syndrome and to sit up at least 30 minutes after eating for GERD. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the appropriate positioning for each condition.

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