NCLEX NCLEX-PN
Nclex PN Questions and Answers
1. A nurse discovers that another nurse has administered an enema to a client even though the client told the nurse that he did not want one. Which is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
- A. Report the incident to the nursing supervisor
- B. Confront the nurse who gave the enema and inform the nurse that she may face charges of battery
- C. Tell the client that the nurse did the right thing in giving the enema
- D. Contact the client’s health care provider
Correct answer: Report the incident to the nursing supervisor
Rationale: Battery is any intentional touching of a client without the client’s consent, which violates the client’s rights. If a nurse discovers such an incident, they should report it to the nursing supervisor. Confronting the nurse and threatening charges of battery could lead to unnecessary conflict. Telling the client that the nurse did the right thing is incorrect as it goes against the client's wishes. While the health care provider may need to be notified eventually, the first step should be reporting the incident to the nursing supervisor to address the violation appropriately.
2. What are the major electrolytes in the extracellular fluid?
- A. potassium and chloride
- B. potassium and phosphate
- C. sodium and chloride
- D. sodium and phosphate
Correct answer: sodium and chloride
Rationale: The correct answer is sodium and chloride. These two electrolytes are the major components of extracellular fluid. Potassium and phosphate (Choice B) are not the major electrolytes in the extracellular fluid. Potassium is primarily an intracellular ion, and phosphate is more abundant in the intracellular fluid and bones. Sodium and phosphate (Choice D) are also not the major electrolytes in the extracellular fluid. Chloride plays a crucial role in maintaining electrolyte balance and is predominantly found in extracellular fluid alongside sodium.
3. Nurses should understand the chain of infection because it refers to:
- A. the linkages involved in disease transmission.
- B. the sequence required for transmission of disease.
- C. the clustering of bacteria in a specific pattern.
- D. increasing virulence patterns among microorganisms.
Correct answer: the sequence required for transmission of disease.
Rationale: The chain of infection refers to the sequence required for the transmission of disease, involving steps like the pathogen's presence, movement from a reservoir, and entry into a susceptible host. Understanding this sequence helps healthcare professionals, including nurses, in implementing effective infection control measures. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the concept of the chain of infection. Choice A is too broad and does not specifically address the sequential nature of disease transmission. Choice C focuses on bacterial clustering rather than the transmission process. Choice D mentions virulence patterns, which are not the primary focus of the chain of infection concept.
4. Which of the following blood pressure parameters indicates PIH? Elevation over a baseline of:
- A. 30 mmHg systolic and/or 15 mmHg diastolic.
- B. 40 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic.
- C. 10 mmHg systolic and/or 5 mmHg diastolic.
- D. 20 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic.
Correct answer: 30 mmHg systolic and/or 15 mmHg diastolic.
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 30 mmHg systolic and/or 15 mmHg diastolic. These parameters indicate mild PIH (pregnancy-induced hypertension). Mild preeclampsia is characterized by an increase in systolic blood pressure greater than 30 mmHg or an increase in diastolic blood pressure greater than 15 mmHg, observed on two readings taken 6 hours apart (or reaching 140/90). Choice B (40 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic) represents a more significant elevation and would indicate a more severe condition than mild PIH. Choices C (10 mmHg systolic and/or 5 mmHg diastolic) and D (20 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic) do not meet the criteria for indicating PIH as they are below the accepted parameters for mild PIH.
5. Signs of impaired breathing in infants and children include all of the following except:
- A. nasal flaring
- B. grunting
- C. seesaw breathing
- D. quivering lips
Correct answer: quivering lips
Rationale: Signs of impaired breathing in infants and children can manifest in various ways. Nasal flaring, grunting, and seesaw breathing are all indicative of respiratory distress in pediatric patients. Nasal flaring is the widening of the nostrils with breathing effort, grunting is a sound made during exhalation to try to keep the airways open, and seesaw breathing involves the chest moving in the opposite direction of the abdomen. However, quivering lips are not typically associated with impaired breathing in this context. Lip quivering is a distracter and not a common sign of respiratory distress in infants and children. Therefore, the correct answer is 'quivering lips.'
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