Nursing Elites

1. An 85-year-old client is eligible for Medicare-reimbursable home care services. Referral is contingent on meeting which of the following criteria?

• A. homebound status, requiring skilled therapy care
• B. immediate previous hospitalization for acute care
• C. age
• D. requirement of nursing and social work support

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct criteria for Medicare-reimbursable home care services include the client being homebound and requiring a skilled service, such as physical therapy, occupational therapy, speech therapy, nursing, or social work. Choice A is correct because it aligns with these requirements. Choice B is incorrect as immediate previous hospitalization is not a prerequisite for home care services. Choice C is incorrect as age alone does not determine eligibility for Medicare-reimbursable home care services. Choice D is incorrect as the requirement of nursing and social work support alone is not sufficient for Medicare-reimbursable home care services.

2. Which of these would be an appropriate meal for a client with Celiac disease?

• A. egg noodles with cream sauce and broccoli, oat cookie, almond milk
• B. turkey sandwich with rye bread, carrots
• C. chicken and rice, apple, and tapioca pudding
• D. granola and dried apricots with cow's milk

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For individuals with Celiac disease, it's crucial to avoid gluten-containing foods. Choice C, which includes chicken, rice, apple, and tapioca pudding, is the most suitable option as all these foods are naturally gluten-free. Rice, fruits, vegetables, meat, dairy, and tapioca are all safe gluten-free options. Oats can be gluten-free if specially labeled, but many are processed on shared equipment with wheat. Granola often contains oats that may have been exposed to gluten. Dried and prepackaged fruits may contain gluten additives. Rye is a wheat derivative, and cream sauces usually contain flour as a base, making choices A and B inappropriate for individuals with Celiac disease.

3. The LPN is receiving the report on a comatose client at the start of the shift at 1500. What statement should be of most concern?

• A. The client was repositioned on his right side at 1100.
• B. The client was bathed, and the skin was assessed head-to-toe at 0900 with no abnormal findings.
• C. The client's PEG tube was changed 6 months ago.
• D. The client's indwelling urinary catheter was last changed 5 days ago.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for a comatose client, it is crucial to monitor and maintain the integrity of the indwelling urinary catheter to prevent urinary tract infections and other complications. Changing the urinary catheter less frequently than recommended increases the risk of infection. In this scenario, the most concerning issue is the prolonged duration since the last change of the indwelling urinary catheter, which poses an immediate risk to the client's health. While repositioning every 2 hours is essential to prevent skin breakdown, the most critical aspect in this case is the catheter care. Bathing and skin assessment are important for overall hygiene and skin integrity but are not as urgent as catheter care. The timing of the PEG tube change, while relevant for care planning, is not as immediate a concern as the indwelling urinary catheter status.

4. The LPN needs to delegate a task to the nurse aide who is new to the unit. Which of these is the best option for the nurse to choose in proceeding?

• A. Delegate the task to the nurse aide, confirm understanding, and follow up to ensure the task was safely and correctly done.
• B. Delegate the task to the nurse aide, watch them perform the task without them seeing you, and follow up to ensure the task was done safely and accurately.
• C. Delegate the task to the nurse aide, supervise if needed, and check in after the task to see if help is needed.
• D. Delegate the task to the nurse aide, ensure understanding of the task, and supervise the task being performed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Delegation is transferring responsibility for a task but sharing its accountability. It is the delegator's responsibility to ensure that the delegatee understands the task before it is performed and to follow up afterward to ensure it was completed correctly and safely. Option B is the best choice because it allows the nurse to observe the nurse aide performing the task without pressure, which can provide insights into the aide's abilities and understanding. This method also allows for immediate feedback and correction if needed. Choice A is incorrect because confirming understanding alone may not provide a complete picture of the aide's competence in performing the task. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests supervising only if needed, which may not provide adequate oversight for a new nurse aide. Choice D is incorrect because supervising the task being performed does not allow for an objective assessment of the aide's abilities and understanding.

5. Which is the proper hand position for performing chest vibration?

• A. cup the hands
• B. use the side of the hands
• C. flatten the hands
• D. spread the fingers of both hands

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct hand position for performing chest vibration is to flatten the hands. By flattening the hands over the area of the body where chest percussion is applied, vibrations can be conducted effectively to the chest to help loosen secretions. Cupping the hands may dampen vibrations, using the side of the hands reduces the surface area in contact with the chest, and spreading the fingers can lead to uneven pressure distribution. Therefore, flattening the hands provides the necessary contact and surface area to perform chest vibration efficiently.

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