Nursing Elites

1. Following a recent tattoo, someone should be screened for:

• A. tuberculosis.
• B. herpes.
• C. hepatitis.
• D. syphilis.

Correct answer: hepatitis.

Rationale: Following a recent tattoo, someone should be screened for hepatitis. Tattooing puts a client at risk for blood-borne hepatitis B or C if strict sterile procedures are not followed. Tuberculosis is an airborne pathogen, while herpes and syphilis are spread through direct contact like sexual activity. Therefore, hepatitis is the most relevant infection to screen for after getting a tattoo.

2. Which sign might a healthcare professional observe in a client with a high ammonia level?

• A. coma
• B. edema
• C. hypoxia
• D. polyuria

Correct answer: coma

Rationale: A high ammonia level can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which includes symptoms like confusion, disorientation, and can progress to coma. Coma is a severe condition of unconsciousness. Edema is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in body tissues, not typically associated with high ammonia levels. Hypoxia is a condition of inadequate oxygen supply to tissues and organs, not directly related to high ammonia levels. Polyuria is excessive urination, which is not a typical sign of high ammonia levels.

3. Which of the following might be an appropriate nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client?

• A. Dysreflexia
• B. Risk for Injury
• C. Urinary Retention
• D. Unbalanced Nutrition

Correct answer: Risk for Injury

Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client would be 'Risk for Injury' as the client is prone to injuries during seizure activity, such as head trauma from falls. Epilepsy does not typically cause dysreflexia. While urinary retention may occur during or after a seizure, it is not a common nursing diagnosis related to epilepsy. 'Unbalanced Nutrition' is not a priority nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client compared to the immediate risk of injury during seizures.

4. Which of the following conditions has a severe complication of respiratory failure?

• A. Bell’s palsy
• B. Guillain-Barré syndrome
• C. Trigeminal neuralgia
• D. Tetanus

Correct answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome

Rationale: Guillain-Barré syndrome is characterized by a severe complication of respiratory failure due to the involvement of the peripheral nerves that control breathing. While Bell’s palsy, trigeminal neuralgia, and tetanus are also conditions affecting peripheral nerves, they do not typically lead to respiratory failure like Guillain-Barré syndrome. Bell’s palsy causes facial muscle weakness, trigeminal neuralgia results in severe facial pain, and tetanus leads to muscle stiffness and spasms, but none of these conditions directly involve respiratory failure.

5. To remove hard contact lenses from an unresponsive client, what should the nurse do?

• A. Gently irrigate the eye with an irrigating solution from the inner canthus outward
• B. Grasp the lens with a gentle pinching motion
• C. Don sterile gloves before attempting the procedure
• D. Ensure that the lens is centered on the cornea before gently manipulating the lids to release the lens

Correct answer: Ensure that the lens is centered on the cornea before gently manipulating the lids to release the lens

Rationale: When removing hard contact lenses from an unresponsive client, the nurse should ensure that the lens is centered on the cornea before gently manipulating the lids to release the lens. This approach helps prevent scratching the cornea. Gently maneuvering the upper and lower eyelids assists in loosening the lens for easy removal. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because irrigating the eye, grasping the lens, or wearing sterile gloves are not recommended methods for removing hard contact lenses. It is crucial to handle the situation delicately to avoid causing harm or discomfort to the client.

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