NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX Questions
1. A nurse calculates a newborn infant's Apgar score 1 minute after birth and determines that the score is 6. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
- A. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
- B. Gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen
- C. Recheck the score in 5 minutes
- D. Provide no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The Apgar score is a method for rapidly evaluating an infant's cardiorespiratory adaptation after birth. The nurse assigns scores in five areas: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex response, and color, totaling the scores. A score of 8 to 10 requires no action other than supporting the infant's spontaneous efforts and observation. A score of 4 to 7 indicates the need to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. If the score is 1 to 3, the infant requires resuscitation. Therefore, in this scenario with an Apgar score of 6, the correct action is to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation would be excessive at this point, and rechecking the score in 5 minutes may delay necessary interventions. Providing no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts is insufficient for a score of 6, indicating the need for stimulation and oxygen administration.
2. When should rehabilitation services begin?
- A. when the client enters the health care system.
- B. after the client requests rehabilitation services
- C. after the client's physical condition stabilizes.
- D. when the client is discharged from the hospital.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Rehabilitation services should begin when the client enters the health care system to ensure early intervention and optimal outcomes. Initiating rehabilitation early can help prevent complications, improve recovery, and enhance overall well-being. Option B is incorrect because waiting for the client to request services may lead to delays in starting treatment, potentially affecting the recovery process. Option C is incorrect as rehabilitation can often commence even when the client's physical condition is not fully stabilized, as early intervention is crucial for progress. Option D is incorrect as beginning rehabilitation only after hospital discharge may not be ideal, as early intervention within the healthcare system is preferred for a more effective recovery journey.
3. Which of the following methods of contraception is able to reduce the transmission of HIV and other STDs?
- A. intrauterine device (IUD)
- B. Norplant
- C. oral contraceptives
- D. vaginal sponge
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is the vaginal sponge. The vaginal sponge is a barrier method of contraception that, when used with foam or jelly contraception, reduces the transmission of HIV and other STDs, as well as reducing the risk of pregnancy. Intrauterine devices (IUDs), Norplant, and oral contraceptives can prevent pregnancy but not the transmission of HIV and STDs. Clients using the contraceptive methods in Choices A, B, and C should be counseled to use a chemical or barrier contraceptive to decrease the transmission of HIV or STDs.
4. Which of the following physical findings indicates that an 11-12-month-old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip?
- A. refusal to walk
- B. not pulling to a standing position
- C. negative Trendelenburg sign
- D. negative Ortolani sign
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'not pulling to a standing position.' An 11-12-month-old child not pulling to a standing position may be at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip. By this age, children typically pull to a standing position, and failure to do so should raise concerns. Refusal to walk is a broader observation and not specific to hip dysplasia. The Trendelenburg sign indicates weakness of the gluteus medius muscle, not hip dysplasia. The Ortolani sign is used to detect congenital subluxation or dislocation of the hip, which is different from developmental dysplasia of the hip.
5. A 65-year-old female client is experiencing postmenopausal bleeding. Which type of physician should this client be encouraged to see?
- A. a radiologist
- B. a gynecologist
- C. a physiatrist
- D. an oncologist
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A gynecologist is the appropriate physician for this scenario as they specialize in treating and managing diseases of the female reproductive system, including postmenopausal bleeding. Postmenopausal bleeding can indicate serious conditions such as endometrial cancer, which a gynecologist can evaluate and manage. A radiologist primarily evaluates X-rays and imaging studies, not directly involved in managing gynecological issues. A physiatrist is a specialist in physical medicine and rehabilitation, not related to gynecological concerns. An oncologist specializes in diagnosing and treating cancer, which is not the primary concern in this case of postmenopausal bleeding.
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