NCLEX NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX Questions
1. A nurse calculates a newborn infant’s Apgar score 1 minute after birth and determines that the score is 6. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
- A. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
- B. Gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen
- C. Recheck the score in 5 minutes
- D. Provide no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts
Correct answer: Gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen
Rationale: The Apgar score is a method for rapidly evaluating an infant’s cardiorespiratory adaptation after birth. The nurse assigns scores in five areas: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex response, and color, totaling the scores. A score of 8 to 10 requires no action other than supporting the infant's spontaneous efforts and observation. A score of 4 to 7 indicates the need to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. If the score is 1 to 3, the infant requires resuscitation. Therefore, in this scenario with an Apgar score of 6, the correct action is to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation would be excessive at this point, and rechecking the score in 5 minutes may delay necessary interventions. Providing no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts is insufficient for a score of 6, indicating the need for stimulation and oxygen administration.
2. When caring for a client with a possible diagnosis of placenta previa, which of the following admission procedures should the nurse omit?
- A. perineal shave
- B. enema
- C. urine specimen collection
- D. blood specimen collection
Correct answer: enema
Rationale: The correct answer is 'enema.' Administering an enema to a client with placenta previa can dislodge the placenta, leading to an increased risk of bleeding and complications. It is crucial to avoid any interventions that may disrupt the placenta's positioning. Collecting urine and blood specimens are necessary for diagnostic purposes and monitoring, while a perineal shave is a routine procedure that does not pose a risk to the client with placenta previa.
3. The nurse is providing post-operative care to the craniotomy client. Diabetes insipidus is suspected when the client’s urine output suddenly increases significantly. Which action takes highest priority?
- A. Continue to monitor urine output
- B. Check a pulse
- C. Check a blood pressure
- D. Check level of consciousness (LOC)
Correct answer: Check a blood pressure
Rationale: The correct answer is to check a blood pressure. Diabetes insipidus can lead to dehydration and potential hypovolemic shock due to excessive urine output. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial to assess the client's circulatory status and detect signs of shock early. Checking the blood pressure will provide essential information on perfusion, which is vital in this situation. Continuing to monitor urine output, checking a pulse, or assessing the level of consciousness are important but not as high a priority as evaluating the blood pressure in a potentially critical situation like suspected diabetes insipidus.
4. While assisting with data collection on a client, a nurse hears a bruit over the abdominal aorta. What action should the nurse prioritize based on this finding?
- A. Document the finding
- B. Palpate the area for a mass
- C. Notify the healthcare provider
- D. Percuss the abdomen to check for tympany
Correct answer: Notify the healthcare provider
Rationale: Detection of a bruit over the aorta during abdominal assessment may indicate the presence of an aneurysm. The nurse's priority action should be to notify the healthcare provider to further evaluate the situation. Palpating the area or percussing the abdomen could potentially increase the risk of an aneurysm rupture. While documenting the finding is important, the priority is to ensure timely intervention by involving the healthcare provider.
5. A client who had a stroke has left-side weakness and is having difficulty holding utensils while eating. To which of these services does the nurse suggest a referral?
- A. Physical therapy
- B. Occupational therapy
- C. Home care
- D. Social services
Correct answer: Occupational therapy
Rationale: An occupational therapist assists clients with impairments in performing activities of daily living, such as feeding themselves with the use of adaptive devices. In this case, the client needs help with holding utensils while eating, falling under the scope of occupational therapy. Home care provides general support services but doesn't specifically address the client's need for utensil use. Social services focus on counseling and financial aspects of care, not physical rehabilitation like occupational therapy does. Physical therapy primarily deals with physical disabilities through exercises, which is not the primary concern for the client's difficulty in holding utensils.
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