Nursing Elites

1. A nurse calculates a newborn infant's Apgar score 1 minute after birth and determines that the score is 6. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
• B. Gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen
• C. Recheck the score in 5 minutes
• D. Provide no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Apgar score is a method for rapidly evaluating an infant's cardiorespiratory adaptation after birth. The nurse assigns scores in five areas: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex response, and color, totaling the scores. A score of 8 to 10 requires no action other than supporting the infant's spontaneous efforts and observation. A score of 4 to 7 indicates the need to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. If the score is 1 to 3, the infant requires resuscitation. Therefore, in this scenario with an Apgar score of 6, the correct action is to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation would be excessive at this point, and rechecking the score in 5 minutes may delay necessary interventions. Providing no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts is insufficient for a score of 6, indicating the need for stimulation and oxygen administration.

2. While assisting with data collection regarding the neurological system, the nurse asks the client to puff out both cheeks. Which cranial nerve is the nurse assessing?

• A. Vagus
• B. Facial
• C. Abducens
• D. Oculomotor

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Facial. Assessment of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) involves noting mobility and symmetry as the client performs various facial movements, including puffing out the cheeks. Cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and cranial nerve X (vagus nerve) are tested together for different functions. The abducens, oculomotor, and trochlear nerves are assessed together for eye movements and pupil reactions, not cheek puffing.

3. A client is taking phenelzine (Nardil), and their spouse would like to bring lunch from home. Which of the following is most appropriate for the client to eat?

• A. a banana
• B. grapefruit
• C. a salami sandwich
• D. avocado slices

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is grapefruit. Clients taking MAO Inhibitors like phenelzine (Nardil) should avoid foods rich in tyramine to prevent hypertensive crisis. Grapefruit is a suitable choice as it is not high in tyramine. Bananas, avocados, and salami are foods that should be avoided due to their tyramine content, which can interact adversely with MAO Inhibitors. Therefore, choosing grapefruit is the safest option for the client.

4. During a voice test, how should the nurse provide words for the client to repeat?

• A. Spoken in a soft tone of voice by the nurse about 5 feet in front of the client
• B. Whispered by the nurse from the client's side at a distance of 1 to 2 feet from the ear being tested
• C. Spoken by the nurse from the client's side in a normal tone of voice about 10 feet from the ear being tested
• D. Whispered at a distance of 20 feet by the nurse while he or she is standing in front of the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a voice test, the nurse should whisper words from the client's side at a distance of 1 to 2 feet from the ear being tested. This distance helps prevent transmission around the head and ensures accurate testing of one ear at a time. By standing close to the client and whispering, the nurse prevents lip-reading and compensatory actions by the client. The client with normal hearing should be able to repeat each word correctly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is wrong as the voice should be whispered, not spoken in a soft tone. Choice C is inaccurate because a distance of 10 feet is too far for precise testing. Choice D is incorrect as whispering from a distance of 20 feet would not effectively test the client's hearing.

5. All of the following factors, when identified in the history of a family, are correlated with poverty except:

• A. high infant mortality rate
• B. frequent use of Emergency Departments
• C. consultation with folk healers
• D. low incidence of dental problems

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'low incidence of dental problems.' Dental problems are prevalent in families living in poverty due to the lack of preventive care and access to dental services. High infant mortality rate is closely correlated with poverty as it reflects various social determinants of health. Families in poverty may resort to frequent use of Emergency Departments due to limited access to primary care. Consulting with folk healers is also common among families in poverty as they might seek alternative and more accessible healthcare options. However, a low incidence of dental problems is less likely in families experiencing poverty.

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