Nursing Elites

1. What type of cells create exocrine secretions?

• A. alpha cells
• B. beta cells
• C. acinar cells
• D. plasma cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acinar cells are responsible for creating exocrine secretions, such as enzymes and digestive juices. Alpha cells are found in the pancreas and are responsible for producing glucagon, beta cells produce insulin, and plasma cells are a type of white blood cell involved in immune responses. Therefore, the correct answer is acinar cells, as they specifically produce exocrine secretions.

2. A patient 3 hours post-op from a hysterectomy is complaining of intense pain at the incision site. When assessing the patient, the nurse notes a BP of 169/93, pulse 145 bpm, and regular. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Reassure the patient that pain is normal following surgery.
• B. Administer prn Nifedipine and assess the client's response.
• C. Administer prn Meperidine HCL and assess the client's response.
• D. Recheck BP and pulse rate every 20 minutes for the next hour.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer prn Meperidine HCL and assess the client's response. A BP of 169/93 and a pulse of 145 bpm indicate pain-related hypertension and sinus tachycardia, which are physiological responses to pain. Treating the cause of the increased pulse rate requires pain medication. Reassuring the patient about normal post-surgery pain is important, but addressing the physiological responses to pain is a priority. Administering Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, is not indicated for pain management but for hypertension. Rechecking the BP and pulse rate without addressing the pain directly does not address the underlying issue causing the elevated vital signs.

3. What task should the RN perform first?

• A. Changing a burn dressing that is scheduled every four hours.
• B. Doing pinsite care on a client in skeletal traction ordered TID.
• C. Teaching a newly diagnosed diabetic about diet and exercise.
• D. Assessing a newly admitted client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess a newly admitted client first. When a client is newly admitted, it is crucial to perform an assessment promptly. The initial assessment and establishment of a care plan should be completed within a specific timeframe to ensure the client's needs are met effectively. Choices A, B, and C involve important tasks but should be prioritized after the initial assessment of the newly admitted client to ensure timely and appropriate care delivery. Changing a burn dressing (Choice A) and doing pinsite care on a client in skeletal traction (Choice B) are time-sensitive tasks but can be safely delayed briefly to conduct the initial assessment. Teaching a newly diagnosed diabetic about diet and exercise (Choice C) is important for the client's long-term care but can be scheduled after the immediate needs assessment of the newly admitted client.

4. A central venous pressure reading of 11cm/H(2)O of an IV of normal saline is determined by the nurse caring for the patient. The patient has a diagnosis of pericarditis. Which of the following is the most applicable?

• A. The patient has a condition of hypovolemia.
• B. Not enough fluid has been given to the patient.
• C. Pericarditis may cause pressures greater than 10cm/H(2)O with testing of CVP.
• D. The patient may have a condition of arteriosclerosis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A central venous pressure reading above 10cm/H(2)O may indicate a condition of pericarditis, as the inflammation and fluid accumulation around the heart can lead to elevated pressures. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypovolemia would typically result in lower CVP readings, not higher. Not enough fluid given would also lead to lower CVP levels. Arteriosclerosis is not directly related to CVP readings in the context of pericarditis.

5. Because of the possible nervous system side-effects that occur with isoniazid (Nydrazid) therapy, which supplementary nutritional agent would the nurse teach the client to take as a prophylaxis?

• A. Alpha tocopherol (vitamin E)
• B. Ascorbic acid (vitamin C)
• C. Calcitriol (vitamin D)
• D. Pyridoxine (vitamin B6)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyridoxine is the correct choice in this scenario because it is used as a prophylaxis to prevent neuritis, a possible nervous system side-effect of isoniazid therapy. Neuritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the nerves and can be a side effect of isoniazid. Pyridoxine, also known as vitamin B6, helps prevent this side effect. Vitamin E (Alpha tocopherol), vitamin C (Ascorbic acid), and vitamin D (Calcitriol) do not specifically address the nervous system side-effects associated with isoniazid therapy, making them incorrect choices.

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