NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Test Bank
1. A nurse in a long-term care center notes that an employee is constantly calling in sick. Which action should the nurse take initially to handle this problem?
- A. Documenting the employee's absences in the personnel file
- B. Discussing the situation with the employee and reminding them of the agency's employment standards
- C. Reporting the employee to administration
- D. Issuing a written warning to the employee
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When an employee demonstrates excessive absenteeism, the initial action a nurse should take is to discuss the situation with the employee and remind them of the agency's employment standards. It is important to communicate openly with the employee to understand the reasons for their frequent absences and remind them of the expectations regarding attendance. This approach allows for a constructive dialogue and provides the employee with an opportunity to rectify their behavior. Documenting the employee's absences in the personnel file may be necessary if the issue persists despite the discussion. Reporting the employee to administration should be considered only if the employee fails to improve after the initial discussion. Issuing a written warning should be a subsequent step if the employee continues to violate the attendance policies even after reminders and discussions.
2. Which of the following clients requires airborne precautions?
- A. a client with fever, chills, vomiting, and diarrhea
- B. a client suspected of varicella (chickenpox)
- C. a client with abdominal pain and purpura
- D. a client diagnosed with AIDS
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'a client suspected of varicella (chickenpox).' Chickenpox is an acute, infectious airborne illness that requires airborne precautions, including wearing a respirator mask for direct contact with the patient. Choices A, C, and D do not typically require airborne precautions. Choice A describes symptoms that may indicate a gastrointestinal infection but do not require airborne precautions. Choice C mentions abdominal pain and purpura, which are not specific to an airborne illness. Choice D, a client diagnosed with AIDS, does not necessitate airborne precautions unless there are additional infectious conditions present that require such measures.
3. During an annual physical exam, a client is diagnosed with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH). This client is likely to have a consult with which type of physician?
- A. gynecologist
- B. physiatrist
- C. urologist
- D. proctologist
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A client diagnosed with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) would typically have a consult with a urologist. Urologists specialize in urinary tract and prostatic diseases, making them the appropriate choice for managing BPH. A gynecologist focuses on diseases of the female reproductive tract, so they are not relevant in this case. A physiatrist specializes in rehabilitation care, which is not directly related to the treatment of BPH. A proctologist specializes in lower colonic digestive diseases, which are unrelated to BPH.
4. What information does the healthcare provider remember regarding do-not-resuscitate (DNR) orders in this scenario?
- A. That a DNR order may be written by a healthcare provider
- B. That everything possible must be done if the client stops breathing
- C. That medications only may be given to the client if the client stops breathing
- D. That life support measures will have to be implemented if the client stops breathing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a situation where a client has no family members and the client's wife is mentally incompetent, the healthcare provider may write a DNR order if it is deemed medically certain that resuscitation would be futile. A DNR order is a medical directive that instructs healthcare providers not to perform CPR if a patient's heart stops or if the patient stops breathing. Option A is correct because a DNR order can indeed be issued by a healthcare provider under certain circumstances, as it is a medical decision. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the concept of DNR orders and the decision-making process involved in such situations.
5. An 80-year-old aphasic CVA client had abdominal surgery 2 days ago. Which of the following puts this client at the highest risk for inadequate pain management?
- A. Inability to turn, cough, and breathe deeply
- B. Inability to communicate pain
- C. Inability to ambulate freely
- D. Inability to use a bedside commode
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inability to communicate pain. In this scenario, the client's aphasia prevents them from verbally expressing their pain, which can lead to inadequate pain management if the healthcare team is not vigilant. The nurse must use alternative methods to assess and address the client's pain. Choices A, C, and D, although important considerations in postoperative care, do not directly relate to the client's ability to communicate pain, which is crucial for effective pain management in this case.
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