a health care provider repeatedly asks a nurse to write his verbal prescriptions in his clients charts after he makes his rounds the nurse is uncomfor
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX PN Test Bank

1. A health care provider repeatedly asks a nurse to write his verbal prescriptions in his clients' charts after he makes his rounds. The nurse is uncomfortable with writing the prescriptions and explains this to the health care provider, but the health care provider tells the nurse that she will be reported if she does not write the prescriptions. How should the nurse manage this conflict?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a conflict arises, it is most appropriate to try resolving the conflict directly. In this situation, the nurse has tried to explain why she is uncomfortable with the health care provider's request but has been unable to resolve the conflict. The nurse would then most appropriately use organizational channels of communication and discuss the issue with the nurse manager, who would then proceed to resolve the conflict. The nurse manager may attempt to discuss the situation with the health care provider or seek assistance from the nursing supervisor. Fulfilling the health care provider's request and writing the prescriptions in the clients' charts ignores the issue. Reporting the health care provider to the chief of medicine is inappropriate because the nurse should use the appropriate organizational channels of communication to resolve the conflict. Stating 'I don't really care whether you report me. I am not writing your prescriptions.' is an inappropriate statement and will result in further conflict between the nurse and health care provider.

2. The nurse is caring for a non-English speaking client. The surgeon has asked the nurse to hurry up and prepare the client for their scheduled procedure, which is running late. Which of the following is least appropriate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Allowing the client's family member to serve as the interpreter is the least appropriate option. It is not recommended to rely on family members for interpretation as they may not be impartial, accurate, or trained to handle sensitive medical information. This can lead to misunderstandings, breaches in confidentiality, and compromised care. Choice A is a better option as it involves communication with the family member to manage expectations. Choice B is also appropriate as it prioritizes the need for a professional interpreter to ensure accurate communication. Choice D is a valid option as it explores the possibility of using a phone-service interpreting service to facilitate communication efficiently.

3. Why is monitoring Serum Vancomycin levels important?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring Serum Vancomycin levels is essential to determine the drug's therapeutic range, ensuring optimal effectiveness while avoiding toxicity. Peak levels indicate the drug's highest concentration, while trough levels represent the lowest concentration before the next dose. Assessing renal function is typically done using creatinine, BUN, or creatinine clearance tests, not Serum Vancomycin levels. Evaluating antibiotic resistance involves sensitivity testing, not monitoring Vancomycin levels. Therefore, the correct answer is to determine the therapeutic range.

4. The nurse manager of a quality improvement program asks a nurse in the neurological unit to conduct a retrospective audit. Which action should the auditing nurse plan to perform in this type of audit?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quality improvement, also known as performance improvement, focuses on processes contributing to client safety and care outcomes. Retrospective audits involve reviewing medical records after discharge for compliance with standards. Concurrent audits assess staff compliance during a client's stay. Therefore, obtaining the medical record from the hospital's record room for review is crucial in a retrospective audit. Options A, B, and C are more suited for concurrent audits as they involve real-time assessment during a client's stay.

5. What is the most likely reason for a hospitalized adult client who routinely works from midnight until 8 a.m. to have a temperature of 99.1�F at 4 a.m.?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'circadian rhythm.' Circadian rhythms are biological cycles that last about 24 hours. The sleep-wake cycle is closely tied to circadian rhythms, affecting body temperature. Normally, core body temperature drops during sleep, reaching its 24-hour low around 4 a.m. In this case, the client's temperature of 99.1�F at 4 a.m. is likely due to the disruption of their circadian rhythm caused by working from midnight until 8 a.m. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because delta sleep, slow brain waves, and pneumonia do not directly explain the temperature fluctuation based on circadian rhythm.

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