NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Test Bank
1. A health care provider repeatedly asks a nurse to write his verbal prescriptions in his clients' charts after he makes his rounds. The nurse is uncomfortable with writing the prescriptions and explains this to the health care provider, but the health care provider tells the nurse that she will be reported if she does not write the prescriptions. How should the nurse manage this conflict?
- A. Stating to the health care provider, 'I don't really care whether you report me. I am not writing your prescriptions.'
- B. Fulfilling the health care provider's request
- C. Discussing the situation with the nurse manager
- D. Reporting the health care provider to the chief of medicine at the hospital
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a conflict arises, it is most appropriate to try resolving the conflict directly. In this situation, the nurse has tried to explain why she is uncomfortable with the health care provider's request but has been unable to resolve the conflict. The nurse would then most appropriately use organizational channels of communication and discuss the issue with the nurse manager, who would then proceed to resolve the conflict. The nurse manager may attempt to discuss the situation with the health care provider or seek assistance from the nursing supervisor. Fulfilling the health care provider's request and writing the prescriptions in the clients' charts ignores the issue. Reporting the health care provider to the chief of medicine is inappropriate because the nurse should use the appropriate organizational channels of communication to resolve the conflict. Stating 'I don't really care whether you report me. I am not writing your prescriptions.' is an inappropriate statement and will result in further conflict between the nurse and health care provider.
2. A child comes to the clinic with a skin rash. The maculopapular lesions are distributed around the mouth and have honey-colored drainage. The caregiver states that the rash is getting worse and seems to spread with the child's scratching. Which of the following advisory comments should be given?
- A. The history and presentation might indicate chickenpox, a highly contagious disease.
- B. The lesions might indicate a noncontagious infection that does not require isolation.
- C. The history and presentation might indicate an infectious illness called impetigo.
- D. The lesions are not contagious unless others have open wounds or lesions themselves.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The scenario describes classic impetigo, which typically presents with maculopapular lesions around the mouth with honey-colored drainage, worsening with scratching. It is important to advise the caregiver that the history and presentation are indicative of impetigo, an infectious skin condition caused by bacteria. Treatment usually involves antibiotic therapy. Choice A is incorrect because chickenpox typically presents with a vesicular rash following a history of high fever. Choice B is incorrect as impetigo is contagious and requires precautions to prevent the spread of infection. Choice D is incorrect as impetigo is contagious irrespective of open wounds or lesions in others.
3. Signs of internal bleeding include all of the following except:
- A. painful or swollen extremities
- B. a tender, rigid abdomen
- C. vomiting bile
- D. bruising
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Vomiting bile is not typically a sign of internal bleeding but is more commonly associated with issues in the gastrointestinal tract. Signs of internal bleeding include painful or swollen extremities, a tender, rigid abdomen, and bruising. Painful or swollen extremities can indicate bleeding from an extremity injury, a tender, rigid abdomen can signal abdominal bleeding, and bruising can result from blood vessel damage. Therefore, the correct answer is 'C: vomiting bile,' as it is not a typical sign of internal bleeding.
4. Which of the following statements is true about syphilis?
- A. The cause and mode of transmission are well understood.
- B. There is no known cure for the disease.
- C. When the primary lesion heals, the disease is cured.
- D. Syphilis can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement about syphilis is that it can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy. Syphilis is a treponemal disease that can be effectively treated with antibiotics, particularly long-acting penicillin G. The primary lesion of syphilis, known as a chancre, typically appears about three weeks after exposure and can involute even without specific treatment. If left untreated, secondary manifestations may occur, followed by latent periods. Specific treatment with antibiotics is crucial to prevent progression and transmission of the disease. Therefore, option D is correct. Option A is incorrect because the cause and mode of transmission of syphilis are well understood. Option B is incorrect as there is a known cure for syphilis. Option C is incorrect because the healing of the primary lesion does not indicate a cure for the disease.
5. When observing a dressing change by a graduate nurse on a Stage III pressure ulcer to the greater trochanter by the staff nurse, a need for further teaching is indicated after the following observation by the nurse:
- A. The new graduate nurse irrigates the pressure ulcer with 50cc of NS.
- B. The new graduate irrigates the pressure ulcer with half-strength hydrogen peroxide.
- C. The new graduate packs the wound with sterile kerlix soaked in NS.
- D. The new graduate applies a Duoderm dressing over the wound after cleansing.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is that the new graduate irrigates the pressure ulcer with half-strength hydrogen peroxide. Pressure ulcers should not be cleaned with substances that are cytotoxic, such as hydrogen peroxide or betadine. This can cause further damage to the wound and delay the healing process. Choice A is incorrect because irrigating the pressure ulcer with normal saline is an appropriate practice. Choice C is incorrect because packing the wound with sterile kerlix soaked in normal saline is also an appropriate step. Choice D is incorrect because applying a Duoderm dressing after cleansing is a standard procedure in wound care.
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