Nursing Elites

1. A female client asks a nurse about the advantages of using a female condom. The nurse discusses which advantage with the client?

• A. That it offers protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs)
• B. That it cannot be used along with a male condom
• C. That it does not have to be discarded after use and can be used several times before a new one must be obtained
• D. That it is 100% effective in preventing pregnancy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that the female condom offers protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Unlike the male condom, the female condom is a loose-fitting tubular polyurethane pouch that is anchored over the labia and cervix. It is used once and then discarded, making choice C incorrect. Female and male condoms should not be used together, so choice B is incorrect. Additionally, no contraceptive method is 100% effective in preventing pregnancy, making choice D incorrect.

2. An Rh-negative woman with previous sensitization has delivered an Rh-positive fetus. Which of the following nursing actions should be included in the client's care plan?

• A. emotional support to help the family cope with feelings of guilt about the infant's condition
• B. administration of MICRhoGam to the woman within 72 hours of delivery
• C. administration of Rh-immune globulin to the newborn within 1 hour of delivery
• D. lab analysis of maternal Direct Coombs' test

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the Rh-negative woman has been sensitized, posing a risk to any Rh-positive fetus she delivers. The most appropriate nursing action is to provide emotional support to help the family cope with the infant's condition. This includes addressing potential outcomes like death or neurological damage. Administering MICRhoGam (Choice B) to a sensitized woman is not recommended; it is only given post-abortion or ectopic pregnancy to prevent sensitization. Rh-immune globulin is not administered to the newborn (Choice C) in this case. Analyzing the maternal Direct Coombs' test (Choice D) is unnecessary; instead, an Indirect Coombs' test is used to assess sensitization. Therefore, the correct nursing action is to offer emotional support to the family, acknowledging the challenges they may face.

3. The parents of an adolescent tell the school nurse that they are frustrated because their daughter has become self-centered, lazy, and irresponsible. The nurse should provide which response to the parents?

• A. That this is normal behavior for an adolescent
• B. That their daughter's behavior may be a part of adolescent development
• C. That this behavior could be a phase as the adolescent explores identity
• D. To restrict any social privileges until the behavior stops

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During adolescence, identity formation is a significant developmental task. Adolescents may appear self-centered, lazy, or irresponsible as they focus on themselves and explore their identity. Erikson describes this phase as identity formation versus role confusion. It is common for frustrated parents to perceive teenagers this way. The adolescent needs time to introspect and develop a sense of self. Suggesting that the behavior requires a child psychologist is premature and not supported by normal adolescent development. Blaming the behavior on parental spoiling is also inaccurate and unhelpful. Restricting social privileges can lead to resentment and rebellion, rather than addressing the root of the behavior.

4. A nurse is preparing to test the function of cranial nerve XI. Which action does the nurse take to test this nerve?

• A. Asking the client to stick out his or her tongue and watching for tremors
• B. Touching the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and noting the gag reflex
• C. Depressing the client's tongue with a tongue blade and noting pharyngeal function as the client says 'ah'
• D. Placing his or her hands on the client's shoulders and asking the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance from the nurse's hands

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To assess the function of cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory nerve), the nurse examines the sternomastoid and trapezius muscles for equal size and strength. The correct method involves asking the client to rotate the head forcibly against resistance to the side of the chin and to shrug the shoulders against resistance from the nurse's hands. Choice A, asking the client to stick out the tongue and watching for tremors, is used to assess cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve). Choice C, depressing the client's tongue with a tongue blade and noting pharyngeal function as the client says 'ah', is the technique for examining cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve). Choice B, touching the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and noting the gag reflex, is used to evaluate cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve), not cranial nerve XI.

5. When assessing a client with deep pitting edema, with the indentation remaining for a short time and visible leg swelling, how should a nurse document this finding?

• A. 1+ edema
• B. 2+ edema
• C. 3+ edema
• D. 4+ edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 3+ edema. When assessing for edema, the nurse presses thumbs against the ankle malleolus or the tibia. If the skin retains an indentation, it indicates pitting edema. The grading scale for pitting edema includes: 1+ for mild pitting with slight indentation and no perceptible leg swelling, 2+ for moderate pitting where the indentation subsides rapidly, 3+ for deep pitting with an indentation remaining briefly and visible leg swelling, and 4+ for very deep pitting with a long-lasting indentation and significant leg swelling. Choices A, B, and D do not accurately represent the severity of the edema described in the scenario.

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