a female client asks a nurse about the advantages of using a female condom the nurse discusses which advantage with the client
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

2024 PN NCLEX Questions

1. A female client asks a nurse about the advantages of using a female condom. The nurse discusses which advantage with the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that the female condom offers protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Unlike the male condom, the female condom is a loose-fitting tubular polyurethane pouch that is anchored over the labia and cervix. It is used once and then discarded, making choice C incorrect. Female and male condoms should not be used together, so choice B is incorrect. Additionally, no contraceptive method is 100% effective in preventing pregnancy, making choice D incorrect.

2. Which of the following methods of contraception is able to reduce the transmission of HIV and other STDs?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the vaginal sponge. The vaginal sponge, when used with foam or jelly contraception, acts as a barrier method that can reduce the transmission of HIV and other STDs, in addition to preventing pregnancy. In contrast, IUDs, Norplant, and oral contraceptives are effective in preventing pregnancy but do not provide protection against the transmission of HIV and STDs. IUDs prevent pregnancy by affecting sperm movement and survival, Norplant releases hormones to prevent ovulation, and oral contraceptives work by inhibiting ovulation. However, these methods do not create a physical barrier against HIV and STD transmission. It is important to counsel clients using methods like IUDs, Norplant, and oral contraceptives to also use chemical or barrier contraceptives to lower the risk of HIV or STD transmission.

3. The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, you need to convert the time from minutes to hours. The formula is (Volume to be infused / Time for infusion in minutes) x (60 minutes / 1 hour). Substituting the values, (50 mL / 30 min) x (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr. Therefore, the appropriate drip rate is 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drip rate. Option A, 100 mL/hr, is the correct drip rate for administering Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W over 30 minutes.

4. Which condition is associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Scurvy is indeed associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C. Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy, which is characterized by weakness, anemia, gum disease, and skin hemorrhages. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because rickets is caused by vitamin D deficiency, marasmus is due to severe malnutrition leading to wasting, and kwashiorkor is a form of severe protein-energy malnutrition.

5. Why is Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness significant?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness is significant because it emphasizes the influence of popular and folk domains on health perceptions. Kleinman distinguishes between disease, representing the biomedical view, and illness, reflecting individual understanding. The model underscores that cultural factors shape the significance of popular and folk influences on health beliefs. Choice A is incorrect as the model focuses on broader cultural influences, not individual family beliefs. Choice B is incorrect as it oversimplifies the model's emphasis on various cultural aspects. Choice D is incorrect as the model's significance lies in its cultural framework rather than an educational base.

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