NCLEX-PN
2024 PN NCLEX Questions
1. A female client asks a nurse about the advantages of using a female condom. The nurse discusses which advantage with the client?
- A. That it offers protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs)
- B. That it cannot be used along with a male condom
- C. That it does not have to be discarded after use and can be used several times before a new one must be obtained
- D. That it is 100% effective in preventing pregnancy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is that the female condom offers protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Unlike the male condom, the female condom is a loose-fitting tubular polyurethane pouch that is anchored over the labia and cervix. It is used once and then discarded, making choice C incorrect. Female and male condoms should not be used together, so choice B is incorrect. Additionally, no contraceptive method is 100% effective in preventing pregnancy, making choice D incorrect.
2. A nurse is caring for a pregnant client in the labor unit who suddenly experiences spontaneous rupture of the membranes. On inspecting the amniotic fluid, the nurse notes that it is clear, with creamy white flecks. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take based on this finding?
- A. Check the client's temperature.
- B. Report the findings to the nurse-midwife.
- C. Obtain a sample of the amniotic fluid for laboratory analysis.
- D. Document the findings.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Amniotic fluid should be clear and may include bits of vernix, the creamy white fetal skin lubricant. Therefore, the nurse would most appropriately document the findings. Checking the client's temperature, reporting the findings to the nurse-midwife, and obtaining a sample of the amniotic fluid for laboratory analysis are not necessary in this situation. Cloudy, yellow, or foul-smelling amniotic fluid suggests infection, while green fluid indicates that the fetus passed meconium before birth. If abnormalities are noted, the nurse should notify the nurse-midwife.
3. What is the primary theory that explains a family's concept of health and illness?
- A. Health Belief Model
- B. Education-School-Completing Factor
- C. Family Health Expert Factor
- D. Disconnected Family Factor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the Health Belief Model. This model explains a family's concept of health and illness by focusing on readiness factors, perceived susceptibility, and seriousness of health problems, and positive motivation for wellness. The Health Belief Model is widely used in healthcare to understand and predict health behaviors. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically address how a family perceives health and illness. The Health Belief Model is the most appropriate choice as it is specifically designed to explain individual and family beliefs and behaviors related to health and illness.
4. Ms. Petty is having difficulty falling asleep. Which of the following measures promote sleep?
- A. exercising vigorously for 20 minutes each night beginning at 9:30 p.m.
- B. taking a cool shower and drinking a hot cup of tea
- C. watching TV nightly until midnight
- D. getting a back rub and drinking a glass of warm milk
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is getting a back rub and drinking a glass of warm milk. These measures are relaxation techniques that can help promote sleep by calming the body and mind. Exercising vigorously right before bedtime, as mentioned in choice A, can increase arousal and make it harder to fall asleep. Choice B, taking a cool shower and drinking a hot cup of tea, involves temperature changes that might not be conducive to sleep. Watching TV until midnight, as in choice C, exposes the individual to blue light and mental stimulation, both of which can disrupt the natural sleep-wake cycle.
5. When assessing a client with deep pitting edema, with the indentation remaining for a short time and visible leg swelling, how should a nurse document this finding?
- A. 1+ edema
- B. 2+ edema
- C. 3+ edema
- D. 4+ edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 3+ edema. When assessing for edema, the nurse presses thumbs against the ankle malleolus or the tibia. If the skin retains an indentation, it indicates pitting edema. The grading scale for pitting edema includes: 1+ for mild pitting with slight indentation and no perceptible leg swelling, 2+ for moderate pitting where the indentation subsides rapidly, 3+ for deep pitting with an indentation remaining briefly and visible leg swelling, and 4+ for very deep pitting with a long-lasting indentation and significant leg swelling. Choices A, B, and D do not accurately represent the severity of the edema described in the scenario.
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