Nursing Elites

1. A community health nurse is providing information to a group of older clients about measures to decrease the risk of contracting influenza during peak flu season. The nurse should provide which information?

• A. Clients must stay at home and ask a neighbor or family member to run their errands.
• B. It is best to do grocery shopping and other errands early in the morning when crowds are smaller.
• C. Clients should wash their hands frequently and keep hands away from the face, especially during peak flu season.
• D. Drinking eight 8-oz glasses of fluid each day will reduce the risk of contracting influenza.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During peak influenza season, older clients should take measures to reduce the risk of contracting the flu. The most effective preventive measure is frequent hand hygiene and refraining from touching the face, as this reduces the transmission of the flu virus. While it is advisable to avoid crowds, the direct action of hand hygiene is more impactful. Doing errands early in the morning when crowds are smaller is a good suggestion to reduce exposure but does not address the direct transmission through hands. Drinking enough fluid daily is important for overall health but does not directly reduce the risk of contracting influenza.

2. During the health screening of an adolescent, which finding by the nurse requires further teaching?

• A. The client started her first menses 2 years ago.
• B. The client states she is currently taking birth control pills.
• C. The client states she recently lost 5 pounds.
• D. The client states she is experiencing growing pains.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The client states she is currently taking birth control pills.' This finding requires further teaching because being on birth control pills does not protect against sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), and the adolescent should be educated on the importance of using barrier methods (e.g., condoms) for STD prevention. Choices A, C, and D are not concerning. Choice A is a normal developmental milestone in adolescence. Choice C could indicate a positive lifestyle change, and choice D is a common complaint during this stage of development.

3. When a couple experiencing infertility presents for a fertility workup, which of the following procedures should the nurse prepare the couple to have first?

• A. Hysterosalpingography
• B. Semen analysis
• C. Endometrial biopsy
• D. Transvaginal ultrasound

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Semen analysis is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for a couple experiencing infertility. It is the least invasive of the listed tests, and since male factor infertility contributes to around 35% of cases, assessing semen parameters early is crucial. Hysterosalpingography is a radiographic test to evaluate tubal patency and uterine cavity abnormalities. Endometrial biopsy assesses endometrial receptivity post-ovulation. Transvaginal ultrasound is mainly used in infertility treatment to monitor follicle development, oocyte maturity, and luteal phase defects. Choices A, C, and D are more invasive, require specialized expertise, and are costlier. If semen analysis yields normal results, further tests may be warranted.

4. When assessing Mr. Lee's eye condition, what general information should the nurse seek?

• A. Type of employment.
• B. Burning or itchy sensation in the eyes.
• C. Position of the eyelids.
• D. Existence of floaters.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient's eye condition, the nurse should seek general information such as the type of employment, activities, allergies, medications, lenses, and protective devices used. This information helps in understanding potential exposures to irritants and risks related to activities. While the presence of burning or itchy sensation in the eyes, position of the eyelids, and existence of floaters are important aspects to assess during a focused eye examination, during the initial assessment, the type of employment is more relevant for understanding possible environmental factors affecting eye health.

5. A nurse reviewing a client's record notes that the result of the client's latest Snellen chart vision test was 20/80. The nurse interprets the client's results in which way?

• A. The client is legally blind.
• B. The client has normal vision.
• C. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet.
• D. The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When interpreting visual acuity testing results using the Snellen chart, the recorded numeric fraction represents the distance the client is standing from the chart and the distance a normal eye could read that particular line. A reading of 20/80 means that the client can read at 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet. This indicates visual impairment but does not meet the criteria for legal blindness, which is defined as best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or worse. Normal visual acuity is 20/20. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet. Choice A is incorrect because 20/80 does not meet the criteria for legal blindness. Choice B is incorrect as the client's vision is impaired. Choice C is incorrect because it reverses the interpretation of the fraction.

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