Nursing Elites

1. A 10-year-old boy has been diagnosed with a congenital heart defect. Which of the following clinical signs does not indicate CHF?

• A. Increased body weight
• B. Elevated heart rate
• C. Lower extremity edema
• D. Compulsive behavior

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Compulsive behavior is not a clinical sign typically associated with congestive heart failure (CHF). CHF commonly presents with symptoms such as increased body weight due to fluid retention, elevated heart rate as the heart works harder to pump blood effectively, and lower extremity edema caused by fluid buildup. While behavioral changes can occur in response to illness, compulsive behavior is not a typical indicator of CHF. Choices A, B, and C are more commonly linked to CHF and should be monitored in patients with this condition.

2. A 20-year-old male client had a diving accident with subsequent paraplegia. He says to the nurse, "No woman will ever want to marry me now."? Which of the following responses by the nurse is most therapeutic?

• A. "Don't worry. Maybe you'll meet a paraplegic woman."?
• B. "There is someone for everyone in this world."?
• C. "You are still an attractive man, even though you can't walk."?
• D. "Tell me more about your feelings on this issue."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is 'Tell me more about your feelings on this issue.' This answer is the most therapeutic as it encourages the client to express his emotions and concerns, fostering a supportive and open dialogue between the client and the nurse. Option A may come across as dismissive and does not directly address the client's emotional state. Option B, while positive, oversimplifies the client's complex feelings. Option C focuses only on physical appearance, missing the opportunity to delve deeper into the client's emotional well-being. Therefore, the most therapeutic response is to encourage further discussion about the client's feelings.

3. While caring for the following clients, a pediatric nurse tells the charge nurse she must leave due to a family emergency. Which client would the charge nurse reassign to an LPN?

• A. An eight-year-old in diabetic ketoacidosis
• B. A six-year-old in sickle cell crisis
• C. A two-month-old with dehydration
• D. A five-year-old in skeletal traction

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is a five-year-old in skeletal traction. This task is within the scope of practice for an LPN and would need minimal assistance from an RN. The children with diabetic ketoacidosis, sickle cell crisis, and dehydration require close observation, good assessment skills, IVF needs, and medications that would be better managed by an RN. Reassigning the child in skeletal traction to an LPN ensures appropriate care while allowing the RN to focus on the more critical cases.

4. Which of these would be the most appropriate way to document a client's refusal of medication?

• A. "Heparin refused during shift. Risks reviewed."?
• B. "The client refused the heparin injection when I tried to administer it. She yelled at me, saying, 'I do not want that injection right now!' and told me to leave the room. I explained the risks of not taking the medication. She seemed very annoyed that I tried to give it at that time. I will attempt again later in my shift."?
• C. "Subcutaneous Heparin injection was attempted to be given to the client per the physician's order. Client refused, stating, 'I do not want that injection.' Potential risks for refusing the medication were reviewed with the client, and the client verbalized understanding."?
• D. "Ct stated she did not want the SQ heparin inj at this time. Risks of not taking this med were reviewed with the ct, and the ct verbalized understanding."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate way to document a client's refusal of medication should include details such as the medication, the client's statement of refusal, and the review of potential risks. Choice C accurately captures all these essential elements, making it the correct answer. Choice A lacks details about the client's refusal and the review of risks. Choice B includes unnecessary emotional descriptions and a plan of action that might not be appropriate. Choice D uses abbreviations that may not be universally understood, lacks proper punctuation, and also does not provide a detailed account of the refusal and the review of risks.

5. A nurse in a long-term care center notes that an employee is constantly calling in sick. Which action should the nurse take initially to handle this problem?

• A. Documenting the employee's absences in the personnel file
• B. Discussing the situation with the employee and reminding them of the agency's employment standards
• C. Reporting the employee to administration
• D. Issuing a written warning to the employee

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When an employee demonstrates excessive absenteeism, the initial action a nurse should take is to discuss the situation with the employee and remind them of the agency's employment standards. It is important to communicate openly with the employee to understand the reasons for their frequent absences and remind them of the expectations regarding attendance. This approach allows for a constructive dialogue and provides the employee with an opportunity to rectify their behavior. Documenting the employee's absences in the personnel file may be necessary if the issue persists despite the discussion. Reporting the employee to administration should be considered only if the employee fails to improve after the initial discussion. Issuing a written warning should be a subsequent step if the employee continues to violate the attendance policies even after reminders and discussions.

Similar Questions