Nursing Elites

1. When administering NSAID adjunctive therapy to an elderly client with cancer, the nurse must monitor:

• A. BUN and creatinine.
• B. creatinine and calcium.
• C. Hgb and Hct.
• D. BUN and CFT.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When an elderly client with cancer is receiving NSAID therapy, monitoring BUN (blood urea nitrogen) and creatinine levels is crucial. NSAIDs can cause renal toxicity, especially in the elderly. BUN and creatinine levels help assess renal function and detect early signs of renal impairment. Monitoring creatinine alone (Choice B) is not sufficient as BUN provides complementary information about renal function. Monitoring hemoglobin (Hgb) and hematocrit (Hct) (Choice C) is important for assessing anemia but not specific to NSAID therapy in the elderly. CFT (Choice D) is not a standard abbreviation in this context, and monitoring coagulation function is not directly related to NSAID therapy in this scenario.

2. A nurse discusses staff empowerment with the nursing team. The nurse explains that staff empowerment has which function?

• A. Fosters the growth of others so that they are less dependent on the leader
• B. Means that the staff has the power to reprimand and punish any individual who is not meeting the standards of care delivery
• C. Indicates that the nurse leader will make decisions regarding the nursing unit and expects that the staff will comply with the changes
• D. Allows the staff to make every decision regarding employee scheduling

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Staff empowerment fosters the growth of others and facilitates their development so that they are less dependent on their leader. This empowerment is about enhancing skills and autonomy, not about reprimanding or punishing others (Choice B). Empowerment involves shared decision-making and autonomy, not unilateral decision-making by the leader (Choice C). Moreover, staff empowerment does not mean that staff should make every decision regarding operational aspects like employee scheduling (Choice D). It is primarily focused on developing individuals' capabilities and fostering independence within the team.

3. What is the most likely reason for a hospitalized adult client who routinely works from midnight until 8 a.m. to have a temperature of 99.1�F at 4 a.m.?

• A. delta sleep
• B. slow brain waves
• C. pneumonia
• D. circadian rhythm

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'circadian rhythm.' Circadian rhythms are biological cycles that last about 24 hours. The sleep-wake cycle is closely tied to circadian rhythms, affecting body temperature. Normally, core body temperature drops during sleep, reaching its 24-hour low around 4 a.m. In this case, the client's temperature of 99.1�F at 4 a.m. is likely due to the disruption of their circadian rhythm caused by working from midnight until 8 a.m. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because delta sleep, slow brain waves, and pneumonia do not directly explain the temperature fluctuation based on circadian rhythm.

4. To assess a client's ankle ROM, which ROM exercises should the nurse have them perform?

• A. flexion, extension, hyperextension
• B. flexion, extension, abduction, adduction
• C. external rotation, internal rotation
• D. extension, flexion, inversion, eversion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is extension, flexion, inversion, and eversion. These exercises help assess the full range of motion of the ankles. Flexion and extension evaluate the bending and straightening movements of the ankle joint, respectively. Inversion and eversion assess the inward and outward movements of the foot at the ankle joint. Hyperextension, abduction, and adduction are not specific movements of the ankle joint, making choices A and B incorrect. External and internal rotation are movements more related to joints like the hip or shoulder, not the ankle, making choice C incorrect.

5. The healthcare provider sustains a needle puncture that requires HIV prophylaxis. Which of the following medication regimens should be used?

• A. an antibiotic such as Metronidazole and a protease inhibitor (Saquinavir)
• B. two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• C. one protease inhibitor such as Nelfinavir
• D. two protease inhibitors

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario of a needle puncture requiring HIV prophylaxis, the CDC recommends initiating treatment with two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, unless there is drug resistance. This regimen is preferred over other options such as a single protease inhibitor or two protease inhibitors due to its effectiveness and safety profile in this specific context. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors are commonly used in post-exposure prophylaxis due to their activity against HIV and lower risk of resistance development compared to other antiretroviral drug classes.

Similar Questions