Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is watching as a new nurse employee administers an intramuscular (IM) injection in a client's deltoid muscle. The nurse determines that the new employee is performing the procedure correctly if the new employee uses which technique?

• A. Administers the injection 2 inches below the acromion process
• B. Positions the client with the deltoid muscle exposed
• C. Administers the injection in the thigh
• D. Places the client in the Sims position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When administering an intramuscular injection in the deltoid muscle, the correct technique involves administering the injection 2 inches below the acromion process, which is the bony structure on top of the shoulder blade. This location ensures safe and effective administration. Administering the injection in the thigh (vastus lateralis or rectus femoris muscle) is not appropriate for a deltoid injection as the deltoid muscle is located in the upper arm. The Sims position is not the correct position for a deltoid muscle injection. While positioning the client with the deltoid muscle exposed allows for proper access and visualization, the critical aspect for a correct deltoid injection is the accurate injection site, 2 inches below the acromion process.

2. While observing a client using crutches for a leg injury, which action would indicate a need for more education by the LPN?

• A. The client places the top padding 1-2 inches below the axilla with a firm grip on the handles.
• B. The client rests the axilla on the top padding and loosely grips the handles with hands.
• C. The client has a slight bend in the elbow when using the handles.
• D. When going down the stairs, the client leads with the injured leg.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Resting the axilla on the top padding can cause nerve damage; instead, the client should place the top padding 1-2 inches below the axilla with a firm grip on the handles for proper support and stability while using crutches. Having a slight bend in the elbow when using the handles (choice C) is a correct technique to ensure proper weight distribution. Leading with the uninjured leg when going down the stairs (choice D) is the correct way to maintain balance and prevent further injury to the injured leg. Therefore, choice B indicates a need for more education to prevent potential nerve damage and ensure safe crutch use.

3. A client is having a seizure; his blood oxygen saturation drops from 92% to 82%. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Open the airway.
• B. Administer oxygen.
• C. Suction the client.
• D. Check for breathing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is having a seizure and their blood oxygen saturation drops significantly, the priority action for the nurse is to open the airway. This allows for adequate oxygenation and ventilation. Administering oxygen can come after ensuring the airway is clear. Suctioning the client should be done if there is an airway obstruction, and checking for breathing is part of the assessment but opening the airway takes precedence to ensure proper oxygenation and ventilation during a critical event like a seizure.

4. Which NSAID is comparable to morphine in efficacy?

• A. Feldene
• B. Stodal
• C. Toradol
• D. Elavil

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Toradol. Toradol is the first injectable NSAID that has been found to be comparable to morphine in terms of efficacy. Feldene (choice A) is not known for being comparable to morphine in efficacy. Stodal (choice B) is a homeopathic cough syrup and not an NSAID. Elavil (choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant and not an NSAID, so it is not comparable to morphine in efficacy. Therefore, Toradol is the most appropriate choice as it matches the description provided in the question.

5. Which of the following isoenzymes is elevated in a client who has had a myocardial infarction?

• A. CPK-BB
• B. CPK-MM
• C. CPK-MB
• D. CPK-MI

Correct answer: C

Rationale: CPK-MB is the correct answer as it is elevated in clients who have had a myocardial infarction. CPK-BB is elevated in clients with brain damage, and CPK-MM is elevated in clients with skeletal muscle damage. CPK-MI, mentioned in the rationale, does not exist, making it an incorrect choice.

Similar Questions