NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Test Bank
1. A nurse is watching as a new nurse employee administers an intramuscular (IM) injection in a client's deltoid muscle. The nurse determines that the new employee is performing the procedure correctly if the new employee uses which technique?
- A. Administers the injection 2 inches below the acromion process
- B. Positions the client with the deltoid muscle exposed
- C. Administers the injection in the thigh
- D. Places the client in the Sims position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When administering an intramuscular injection in the deltoid muscle, the correct technique involves administering the injection 2 inches below the acromion process, which is the bony structure on top of the shoulder blade. This location ensures safe and effective administration. Administering the injection in the thigh (vastus lateralis or rectus femoris muscle) is not appropriate for a deltoid injection as the deltoid muscle is located in the upper arm. The Sims position is not the correct position for a deltoid muscle injection. While positioning the client with the deltoid muscle exposed allows for proper access and visualization, the critical aspect for a correct deltoid injection is the accurate injection site, 2 inches below the acromion process.
2. A client states, 'I can leave the diaphragm in place as long as I want after intercourse.' Which statement indicates to the nurse that the client needs further information on how to use the diaphragm?
- A. 'I need to reapply spermicidal cream with repeated intercourse.'
- B. 'The diaphragm needs to be filled with spermicidal cream before insertion.'
- C. 'I can leave the diaphragm in place as long as I want after intercourse.'
- D. 'The diaphragm can be inserted as long as 6 hours before intercourse.'
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is the statement, 'I can leave the diaphragm in place as long as I want after intercourse.' This statement indicates a lack of understanding about the correct use of the diaphragm. The diaphragm must be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure effectiveness and reduce the risk of pregnancy. Leaving the diaphragm in place for an extended period can lead to toxic shock syndrome. Choice A is correct as spermicidal cream needs to be reapplied before each act of intercourse for optimal contraceptive efficacy. Choice B is a correct statement as the diaphragm should be filled with spermicidal cream before insertion to increase its effectiveness. Choice D is also accurate as the diaphragm can be inserted up to 6 hours before intercourse to allow time for proper placement and effectiveness.
3. A 4-year-old client is unable to go to sleep at night in the hospital. Which nursing intervention best promotes sleep for the child?
- A. turning off the room light and closing the door
- B. engaging the child in calming activities before bedtime
- C. identifying the child's home bedtime rituals and following them
- D. encouraging relaxation techniques like deep breathing exercises
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For a 4-year-old client struggling to sleep in the hospital, the best nursing intervention is to identify the child's home bedtime rituals and follow them. Preschool-age children often have specific bedtime routines that provide comfort and promote sleep. This familiarity can help create a sense of security in an unfamiliar hospital environment. Choice A, turning off the room light and closing the door, may increase the child's fear of the dark and being alone. Choice B, engaging the child in calming activities before bedtime, is a better choice than tiring them with play exercises. Choice D, encouraging relaxation techniques like deep breathing exercises, although helpful, may not be as effective as following the child's familiar bedtime routines.
4. A client expresses anxiety about having magnetic resonance imaging performed. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. "You can receive a sedative to help you relax during the test."?
- B. "There is absolutely nothing to worry about."?
- C. "There is no discomfort with this test, so don't be anxious."?
- D. "The test won't last long, so you can handle it."?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response acknowledges the client's anxiety and offers a practical solution to alleviate it, showing empathy and addressing the client's concerns. Offering a sedative to help relax during the test is a proactive approach to managing the client's anxiety. Choices B and C dismiss the client's feelings by invalidating their anxiety, which can further escalate their distress. Choice D downplays the client's feelings by implying they should not be worried, which does not effectively address the client's emotional state.
5. Which direction given to the nursing assistant is most likely to accomplish the task of getting a urine specimen delivered to the lab immediately after collection?
- A. "Make it a stat delivery."?
- B. "Please do it as soon as you can after break."?
- C. "This client is delirious, and we're worried about urinary sepsis."?
- D. "Take this client to the bathroom now and collect a urine specimen from this voiding. Take the specimen to the lab immediately."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Effective delegation depends on clear, concise direction that leaves no room for question or interpretation on the part of the one being delegated to. In this scenario, the most appropriate direction is to ensure the urine specimen is collected promptly and delivered to the lab immediately. Choice A is too vague and does not specify the urgency required. Choice B does not emphasize the immediate need for the specimen to be delivered. Choice C introduces unnecessary medical information that is beyond the scope of a nursing assistant and may cause confusion. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer as it provides clear instructions for immediate action without room for misunderstanding.
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