NCLEX NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Test Bank
1. A nurse is watching as a new nurse employee administers an intramuscular (IM) injection in a client’s deltoid muscle. The nurse determines that the new employee is performing the procedure correctly if the new employee uses which technique?
- A. Administers the injection 2 inches below the acromion process
- B. Positions the client with the deltoid muscle exposed
- C. Administers the injection in the thigh
- D. Places the client in the Sims position
Correct answer: Administers the injection 2 inches below the acromion process
Rationale: When administering an intramuscular injection in the deltoid muscle, the correct technique involves administering the injection 2 inches below the acromion process, which is the bony structure on top of the shoulder blade. This location ensures safe and effective administration. Administering the injection in the thigh (vastus lateralis or rectus femoris muscle) is not appropriate for a deltoid injection as the deltoid muscle is located in the upper arm. The Sims position is not the correct position for a deltoid muscle injection. While positioning the client with the deltoid muscle exposed allows for proper access and visualization, the critical aspect for a correct deltoid injection is the accurate injection site, 2 inches below the acromion process.
2. The client with a myocardial infarction comes to the nurse’s station stating that he is ready to go home because there is nothing wrong with him. Which defense mechanism is the client using?
- A. Rationalization
- B. Denial
- C. Projection
- D. Conversion reaction
Correct answer: Denial
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Denial. The client displaying denial refuses to acknowledge the reality of having a myocardial infarction. Rationalization (choice A) involves making excuses for behavior, not denying a condition. Projection (choice C) is attributing one's thoughts or feelings to others, not denying an illness. Conversion reaction (choice D) is converting psychological distress into physical symptoms, which is not evident in this scenario. Therefore, denial is the defense mechanism being used in this situation.
3. How can a diet high in fiber content benefit an individual?
- A. aid in rapid weight loss.
- B. reduce diabetic ketoacidosis.
- C. lower cholesterol.
- D. reduce the requirement for folate.
Correct answer: lower cholesterol.
Rationale: A diet high in fiber content can help lower cholesterol levels. Fiber-rich foods such as grains, apples, potatoes, and beans are known to aid in reducing cholesterol by binding to cholesterol in the digestive system and preventing its absorption into the bloodstream. Choice A is incorrect as the question does not specify losing weight rapidly but rather focuses on the benefits of a high-fiber diet, which includes aiding in weight management through promoting satiety and regulating digestion. Choice B is incorrect because while fiber helps manage blood sugar levels, it is not directly related to reducing diabetic ketoacidosis, a serious complication of diabetes. Choice D is incorrect as a high-fiber diet does not reduce the need for folate; however, it can aid in the absorption of folate and other essential nutrients.
4. A female client asks a nurse about the advantages of using a female condom. The nurse discusses which advantage with the client?
- A. That it offers protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs)
- B. That it cannot be used along with a male condom
- C. That it does not have to be discarded after use and can be used several times before a new one must be obtained
- D. That it is 100% effective in preventing pregnancy
Correct answer: A: That it offers protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs)
Rationale: The correct answer is that the female condom offers protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Unlike the male condom, the female condom is a loose-fitting tubular polyurethane pouch that is anchored over the labia and cervix. It is used once and then discarded, making choice C incorrect. Female and male condoms should not be used together, so choice B is incorrect. Additionally, no contraceptive method is 100% effective in preventing pregnancy, making choice D incorrect.
5. The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:
- A. administer both medications simultaneously
- B. give the medications sequentially, and flush well between them
- C. ask the physician or pharmacy which medication to give first and how long to wait before giving the other drug
- D. start one medication now and begin the other medication in 2–4 hours
Correct answer: give the medications sequentially, and flush well between them
Rationale: The correct answer is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them. Ampicillin has a pH of 8–10, while gentamicin has a pH of 3–5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent any potential interactions. Option A is incorrect because administering both medications simultaneously can lead to incompatibility issues. Option C is incorrect because the nurse should already be aware of the correct administration sequence and not need to consult the physician or pharmacy each time. Option D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow down the treatment of the client's infection, which is not ideal in this scenario.
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