a nurse is watching as a new nurse employee administers an intramuscular im injection in a clients deltoid muscle the nurse determines that the new em
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

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1. A nurse is watching as a new nurse employee administers an intramuscular (IM) injection in a client's deltoid muscle. The nurse determines that the new employee is performing the procedure correctly if the new employee uses which technique?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When administering an intramuscular injection in the deltoid muscle, the correct technique involves administering the injection 2 inches below the acromion process, which is the bony structure on top of the shoulder blade. This location ensures safe and effective administration. Administering the injection in the thigh (vastus lateralis or rectus femoris muscle) is not appropriate for a deltoid injection as the deltoid muscle is located in the upper arm. The Sims position is not the correct position for a deltoid muscle injection. While positioning the client with the deltoid muscle exposed allows for proper access and visualization, the critical aspect for a correct deltoid injection is the accurate injection site, 2 inches below the acromion process.

2. Several passengers aboard an airliner suddenly become weak and suffer breathing difficulty. The diagnosis is likely to be

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, where multiple passengers on an airliner experience sudden weakness and breathing difficulty simultaneously, the most likely cause is chemical exposure. This is because a sudden onset of similar symptoms in a group of individuals suggests a common environmental factor affecting them. Options A, C, and D are less likely as they do not explain a sudden onset of symptoms in multiple individuals simultaneously. Asian flu (Option A) is a viral infection and would not typically result in sudden symptoms in multiple individuals at the same time. Bacterial pneumonia (Option C) is a localized infection and not a probable cause for a sudden onset of symptoms in a group. An allergic reaction (Option D) would usually occur in individuals with specific allergies rather than affecting a group of passengers at the same time.

3. In an emergency situation, the nurse determines whether a client has an airway obstruction. Which of the following does the nurse assess?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In an emergency situation, assessing the client's ability to speak is crucial in determining airway obstruction. If a client can speak, it indicates that the airway is patent and not completely obstructed. Choices B and C, assessing the ability to hear and oxygen saturation, are not directly indicative of an airway obstruction. Choice D, adventitious breath sounds, may be present in conditions like asthma or pneumonia but are not specific to determining an airway obstruction.

4. While assisting a healthcare provider in assessing a hospitalized client, the healthcare provider is paged to report to the recovery room. The healthcare provider instructs the nurse verbally to change the solution and rate of the intravenous (IV) fluid being administered. What is the most appropriate nursing action in this situation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verbal prescriptions should be avoided due to the risk of errors. If a verbal prescription is necessary, it should be promptly written and signed by the healthcare provider, typically within 24 hours. Following agency policies and procedures regarding verbal prescriptions is crucial. In this scenario, the most appropriate nursing action is to request the healthcare provider to document the prescription in the client's record before leaving the unit. Calling the nursing supervisor to accept the verbal prescription without documentation, telling the healthcare provider to delay treatment until documented, and directly changing the IV fluid based on verbal orders all pose risks and do not align with best practices in medication administration.

5. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client with cirrhosis is at risk for developing a high ammonia level due to impaired liver function. The liver normally converts ammonia into urea for excretion. In cirrhosis, this process is compromised, leading to elevated ammonia levels in the blood. Renal failure, psoriasis, and lupus do not typically cause high ammonia levels. Renal failure affects kidney function, while psoriasis and lupus are autoimmune conditions that do not directly impact ammonia metabolism.

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