Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is watching as a new nurse employee administers an intramuscular (IM) injection in a client's deltoid muscle. The nurse determines that the new employee is performing the procedure correctly if the new employee uses which technique?

• A. Administers the injection 2 inches below the acromion process
• B. Positions the client with the deltoid muscle exposed
• C. Administers the injection in the thigh
• D. Places the client in the Sims position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When administering an intramuscular injection in the deltoid muscle, the correct technique involves administering the injection 2 inches below the acromion process, which is the bony structure on top of the shoulder blade. This location ensures safe and effective administration. Administering the injection in the thigh (vastus lateralis or rectus femoris muscle) is not appropriate for a deltoid injection as the deltoid muscle is located in the upper arm. The Sims position is not the correct position for a deltoid muscle injection. While positioning the client with the deltoid muscle exposed allows for proper access and visualization, the critical aspect for a correct deltoid injection is the accurate injection site, 2 inches below the acromion process.

2. What should be included in the assessment of a client with a cast?

• A. capillary refill, warm toes, no discomfort.
• B. posterior tibial pulses, warm toes.
• C. moist skin essential, pain threshold.
• D. discomfort of the metacarpals.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a client with a cast, it is crucial to check for capillary refill to ensure adequate circulation. Warm toes indicate good circulation, while the absence of discomfort suggests the cast is not causing any pain or undue pressure on the client. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the essential components of assessing a client with a cast.

3. The nurse is educating a teenage female about preventing the transmission of genital herpes. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. "Do not sit on toilet seats without protection."?
• B. "Oral sex can transmit the virus."?
• C. "This infection can be transmitted via intercourse even when you do not feel ill."?
• D. "Try to drink plenty of fluids after sex to flush the reproductive tract."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Genital herpes can be transmitted through oral, genital, and anal sex. It is crucial to educate the patient that the infection can be transmitted via intercourse even when asymptomatic to prevent its spread. Choice A is incorrect as sitting on toilet seats without protection does not transmit genital herpes. Choice B is incorrect because oral sex can transmit the virus. Choice D is also incorrect as drinking fluids after sex does not prevent the transmission of genital herpes.

4. The client is being taught about the use of Rifampin for prophylaxis following exposure to meningitis. What change in bodily functions should the client be informed about?

• A. The client's urine may turn blue.
• B. The client remains infectious to others for 48 hours.
• C. The client's contact lenses may be stained orange.
• D. The client's skin may take on a crimson glow.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rifampin has the unusual effect of turning body fluids an orange color. Soft contact lenses might become permanently stained. Clients should be taught about these side effects to avoid unnecessary concern. Option A is incorrect as Rifampin does not cause the urine to turn blue. Option B is incorrect as the client is not infectious to others due to taking Rifampin for prophylaxis. Option D is incorrect as Rifampin does not cause the skin to take on a crimson glow.

5. A client expresses anxiety about having magnetic resonance imaging performed. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. "You can receive a sedative to help you relax during the test."?
• B. "There is absolutely nothing to worry about."?
• C. "There is no discomfort with this test, so don't be anxious."?
• D. "The test won't last long, so you can handle it."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response acknowledges the client's anxiety and offers a practical solution to alleviate it, showing empathy and addressing the client's concerns. Offering a sedative to help relax during the test is a proactive approach to managing the client's anxiety. Choices B and C dismiss the client's feelings by invalidating their anxiety, which can further escalate their distress. Choice D downplays the client's feelings by implying they should not be worried, which does not effectively address the client's emotional state.

Similar Questions