Nursing Elites

1. A client has signed the informed consent for mastectomy of the left breast. On the morning of the surgical procedure, the client asks the nurse several questions about the procedure that make it obvious that she does not have an adequate comprehension of the procedure. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Telling the client that she needed to ask these questions before signing the informed consent for surgery
• B. Contacting the surgeon and requesting that she visit the client to answer her questions
• C. Informing the client that she has the right to cancel the surgical procedure if she wishes
• D. Telling the client that it is her surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Informed consent is the authorization by a client or a client's legal representative to do something to the client. The surgeon is primarily responsible for explaining the surgical procedure and obtaining informed consent. If the client asks questions that alert the nurse to an inadequacy of comprehension on the client's part, the nurse has the obligation to contact the surgeon. Choice A is incorrect as the client should be allowed to ask questions even after signing the consent for surgery. Choice C is not the most appropriate response, as the primary concern is to address the client's lack of comprehension. Choice D is inaccurate, as while it is the surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure, in this scenario, the nurse should take immediate action to ensure the client's understanding. Requesting the surgeon to visit and answer the client's questions is the most appropriate response in this situation, as it directly addresses the client's concerns and ensures proper informed consent is obtained.

2. An LPN is having a conflict with another nurse during her shift. She has tried to discuss the issues with the nurse with no resolution. What is the most appropriate way for the LPN to proceed?

• A. Report the conflict to the director of nursing over the unit.
• B. Report the conflict to the assigned charge nurse of the unit.
• C. Report the conflict to the nurse manager of the unit.
• D. Discuss the conflict with the other nurse to attempt resolution of the issue.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate way for the LPN to proceed is to report the conflict to the assigned charge nurse of the unit. Following the chain of command is crucial in a professional setting to address conflicts effectively. Reporting the issue to the charge nurse, who is the immediate supervisor, allows for a structured approach to resolving the conflict. Reporting directly to higher levels such as the director of nursing or nurse manager may bypass the appropriate hierarchy and could create unnecessary tension. Attempting to resolve the issue independently with the other nurse may not be effective if previous attempts have failed, making it essential to involve the immediate supervisor.

3. Which of the following statements indicates that the provider understands how to promote rest and sleep for the client?

• A. If you would prefer not to be disturbed, we can postpone all vital signs and assessments until tomorrow morning.
• B. With your physical therapy appointments, you cannot nap more during the day even if your sleep is often interrupted at nighttime.
• C. I can try to incorporate any sleep rituals or an ideal bedtime into your routine.
• D. We cannot group together medications, assessments, and other interventions so you may have multiple interruptions at night.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I can try to incorporate any sleep rituals or an ideal bedtime into your routine.' To promote rest and sleep, the provider should consider incorporating the client's preferred sleep rituals or bedtime routine. This statement shows an understanding of the importance of individualizing care to promote restful sleep. Choices A, B, and D do not directly address promoting rest and sleep. Choice A focuses on postponing assessments, Choice B addresses napping during the day, and Choice D mentions multiple interruptions at night, none of which directly support promoting rest and sleep for the client.

4. A client with dumping syndrome should ___________ while a client with GERD should ___________.

• A. lie down 1 hour after meals; sit up at least 30 minutes after meals
• B. sit up 1 hour after meals; lie flat 30 minutes after meals
• C. sit up after meals; sit up after meals
• D. lie down after meals; lie down after meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with dumping syndrome should lie down after eating to decrease the symptoms of dumping syndrome, which include rapid gastric emptying leading to various gastrointestinal symptoms. On the other hand, clients with GERD should sit up at least 30 minutes after meals to prevent the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus. This position helps reduce symptoms by allowing gravity to keep the stomach contents in place, minimizing the chances of reflux. Therefore, the correct answer is to lie down 1 hour after eating for dumping syndrome and to sit up at least 30 minutes after eating for GERD. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the appropriate positioning for each condition.

5. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:

• A. Primary prevention.
• B. Secondary prevention.
• C. Tertiary prevention.
• D. Disability prevention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.

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