NCLEX NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. A client is experiencing chest pain. Which statement made by the client indicates angina rather than a myocardial infarction?
- A. “I became dizzy when I stood up.”
- B. “I was nauseated and began vomiting.”
- C. “The pain started in my chest and stopped after I sat down.”
- D. “The pain began with a migraine and progressed to numbness in my left arm.”
Correct answer: “The pain started in my chest and stopped after I sat down.”
Rationale: The correct answer is: '“The pain started in my chest and stopped after I sat down.” This statement suggests angina rather than a myocardial infarction because angina is typically triggered by exertion or stress and relieved by rest. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) are more commonly associated with a myocardial infarction. Choices A and D are not typical symptoms of either angina or myocardial infarction.
2. A nurse is caring for a pregnant client in the labor unit who suddenly experiences spontaneous rupture of the membranes. On inspecting the amniotic fluid, the nurse notes that it is clear, with creamy white flecks. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take based on this finding?
- A. Check the client's temperature.
- B. Report the findings to the nurse-midwife.
- C. Obtain a sample of the amniotic fluid for laboratory analysis.
- D. Document the findings.
Correct answer: Document the findings.
Rationale: Amniotic fluid should be clear and may include bits of vernix, the creamy white fetal skin lubricant. Therefore, the nurse would most appropriately document the findings. Checking the client’s temperature, reporting the findings to the nurse-midwife, and obtaining a sample of the amniotic fluid for laboratory analysis are not necessary in this situation. Cloudy, yellow, or foul-smelling amniotic fluid suggests infection, while green fluid indicates that the fetus passed meconium before birth. If abnormalities are noted, the nurse should notify the nurse-midwife.
3. A 35-year-old Latin-American client wishes to lose weight to reduce her chances of developing heart disease and diabetes. The client states, “I do not know how to make my diet work with the kind of foods that my family eats.” What should the nurse do first to help the client determine a suitable diet for disease prevention?
- A. Provide her with copies of the approved dietary guidelines from the American Diabetes Association and the American Heart Association.
- B. Ask the client to provide a list of the types of foods she eats to determine how to best meet her needs.
- C. Provide a high-protein diet plan for the client.
- D. Provide the client with information related to risk factors for heart disease and diabetes.
Correct answer: Ask the client to provide a list of the types of foods she eats to determine how to best meet her needs.
Rationale: The correct first step is to assess the client's current diet by asking her to provide a list of the types of foods she eats. This assessment will help the nurse determine a personalized dietary plan based on the guidelines from the American Diabetes Association and the American Heart Association. Providing the client with copies of the guidelines is important but not the initial action. A high-protein diet plan may not be suitable for all clients aiming to prevent heart disease and diabetes. While providing information on risk factors is important, it is not the primary step in assisting the client with determining a suitable diet for disease prevention.
4. The schizophrenic client who is admitted to the hospital for possible bowel obstruction has an NG tube and complains of pain. What should the nurse do at this time?
- A. Decrease the stimuli and observe frequently
- B. Administer the PRN sedative
- C. Call the physician immediately
- D. Administer the PRN pain medication
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should administer the PRN (as needed) pain medication to address the schizophrenic client's complaint of pain. It is essential to provide relief and comfort to the client experiencing pain. Option A, decreasing stimuli and observing frequently, may not address the underlying cause of pain and delay relief. Option B, administering a sedative, does not target the pain but may mask symptoms. Option C, calling the physician immediately, while important in some situations, is not the most immediate action needed to alleviate the client's pain. Therefore, the most appropriate action at this time is to administer the PRN pain medication to help alleviate the client's discomfort.
5. Which of the following is responsible for laws mandating the reporting of certain infections and diseases?
- A. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
- B. individual state laws
- C. National Institutes of Health (NIH)
- D. Health and Human Services (HHS)
Correct answer: individual state laws
Rationale: Individual state laws mandate the reporting of infectious diseases. The list of reportable diseases varies from state to state and is overseen by state health departments. While the CDC plays a significant role in disease surveillance, reporting infectious diseases is primarily governed by individual state laws. The CDC's role is to provide support, guidance, and expertise to state health departments. The National Institutes of Health (NIH) primarily focus on biomedical and health-related research, not on mandating disease reporting. Health and Human Services (HHS) is a federal department that oversees various agencies, but the responsibility for mandating disease reporting lies with individual states.
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