a nurse is caring for a client who has chest pain which statement made by the client leads the nurse to suspect angina versus a myocardial infarction
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day

1. A client is experiencing chest pain. Which statement made by the client indicates angina rather than a myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is: '"The pain started in my chest and stopped after I sat down."? This statement suggests angina rather than a myocardial infarction because angina is typically triggered by exertion or stress and relieved by rest. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) are more commonly associated with a myocardial infarction. Choices A and D are not typical symptoms of either angina or myocardial infarction.

2. Why must the nurse be careful not to cut through or disrupt any tears, holes, bloodstains, or dirt present on the clothing of a client who has experienced trauma?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases of trauma, the clothing of a client can hold crucial evidence that may have legal implications. It is essential for the nurse to avoid cutting through or disrupting any tears, holes, bloodstains, or dirt present on the clothing to preserve this potential evidence. The correct answer highlights the legal importance of preserving the clothing for potential legal implications. Choice B is related but does not emphasize the legal aspect explicitly. Choice C is vague in mentioning further investigation without specifying the legal significance. Choice D focuses more on forensic analysis rather than the legal implications of preserving the clothing.

3. In the Emergency Department (ED), which client should the nurse see first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the Emergency Department, the priority is to assess and manage clients based on the urgency of their conditions. A client with adrenal insufficiency presenting with weakness should be seen first as this could indicate a state of shock, which requires immediate attention to stabilize the client's condition. Weakness in adrenal insufficiency can progress rapidly to a life-threatening adrenal crisis. Choice A, a COPD client with a non-productive cough, may need treatment but is not immediately life-threatening. Choice B, a diabetic client with an infected sore on the foot, requires timely care to prevent complications but can generally wait for evaluation compared to the potential urgency of adrenal insufficiency. Choice D, a client with a fracture of the forearm in an air splint, is important but not as time-sensitive as a client potentially in shock.

4. What vitamin is important in preventing peripheral neuritis in a client with alcohol abuse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fat-soluble vitamins.' Vitamin B, not Vitamin D, is crucial in preventing peripheral neuritis in individuals with alcohol abuse. Vitamin B deficiency, particularly B1 (thiamine), is commonly associated with peripheral neuritis in alcoholics. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Vitamin D is not directly related to peripheral neuritis, and potassium deficiency typically presents with different symptoms.

5. Which type of exercises might be prescribed to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles of a client with urinary incontinence?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Kegel. Kegel exercises are specifically designed to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, making them an effective treatment for urinary incontinence. These exercises involve contracting and relaxing the pelvic floor muscles, which helps to improve muscle tone and control. Choice B, resistance exercises, may not directly target the pelvic floor muscles as effectively as Kegel exercises. Passive exercises (Choice C) do not actively engage the muscles and are unlikely to strengthen the pelvic floor. Stretching exercises (Choice D) focus on increasing flexibility rather than muscle strength, so they are not the most appropriate for strengthening the pelvic floor muscles in the context of urinary incontinence.

Similar Questions

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