NCLEX-PN
Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet
1. A client is complaining of difficulty walking secondary to a mass in the foot. The nurse should document this finding as:
- A. Plantar fasciitis.
- B. Hallux valgus.
- C. Hammertoe.
- D. Morton’s neuroma.
Correct answer: D: Morton’s neuroma.
Rationale: The correct answer is Morton’s neuroma. Morton’s neuroma is a small mass or tumor in a digital nerve of the foot, causing symptoms such as pain and difficulty walking. Hallux valgus is commonly known as a bunion and involves the deviation of the big toe towards the other toes. Hammertoe is a condition where one or more toes are bent in a claw-like position. Plantar fasciitis is characterized by pain and inflammation in the arch of the foot, not typically associated with a mass causing difficulty walking.
2. Which of the following statements is true about syphilis?
- A. The cause and mode of transmission are well understood.
- B. There is no known cure for the disease.
- C. When the primary lesion heals, the disease is cured.
- D. Syphilis can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy.
Correct answer: Syphilis can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy.
Rationale: The correct statement about syphilis is that it can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy. Syphilis is a treponemal disease that can be effectively treated with antibiotics, particularly long-acting penicillin G. The primary lesion of syphilis, known as a chancre, typically appears about three weeks after exposure and can involute even without specific treatment. If left untreated, secondary manifestations may occur, followed by latent periods. Specific treatment with antibiotics is crucial to prevent progression and transmission of the disease. Therefore, option D is correct. Option A is incorrect because the cause and mode of transmission of syphilis are well understood. Option B is incorrect as there is a known cure for syphilis. Option C is incorrect because the healing of the primary lesion does not indicate a cure for the disease.
3. An LPN is caring for a primarily bedridden client. Which finding should be of least concern?
- A. swollen feet
- B. brown discoloration above the ankles
- C. leg pain
- D. capillary refill time of 3 seconds on the big toe
Correct answer: capillary refill time of 3 seconds on the big toe
Rationale: The correct answer is the capillary refill time of 3 seconds on the big toe. A capillary refill time longer than three seconds may indicate inadequate blood flow. Swollen feet, brown discoloration above the ankles, and leg pain are all signs of venous insufficiency to the lower extremities. These findings can suggest circulation issues and require further assessment and intervention. Therefore, they should be of more concern compared to the capillary refill time of 3 seconds on the big toe, which is within the normal range of 2-3 seconds.
4. An Asian family has an elderly member with the latest stage of Alzheimer’s disease. The physician has recommended placement in a long-term care facility, but the family refuses. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. “You really need to listen to what the physician says.”
- B. “You will get too tired to take care of him at home.”
- C. “What can I do to assist you to care for him at home?”
- D. “You are too busy to be taking care of an elderly person.”
Correct answer: “What can I do to assist you to care for him at home?”
Rationale: The correct answer is, “What can I do to assist you to care for him at home?” This response shows cultural sensitivity and respect for the family's values. In many Asian cultures, there is a strong tradition of caring for elders at home rather than in a long-term care facility. By offering assistance to the family in caring for their elderly member at home, the nurse shows understanding and support. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not acknowledge or respect the family's cultural beliefs and values regarding caring for elderly family members.
5. What is the 24-hour day-night cycle known as?
- A. circadian rhythm
- B. infradian rhythm
- C. ultradian rhythm
- D. non-REM rhythm
Correct answer: circadian rhythm
Rationale: The correct answer is circadian rhythm. Circadian rhythm refers to the rhythmic repetition of patterns that occur approximately every 24 hours, regulating various biological processes related to the day-night cycle. Infradian rhythm, which is longer than 24 hours, and ultradian rhythm, which is shorter than 24 hours, are not the correct terms for the 24-hour cycle. Non-REM rhythm does not specifically relate to the 24-hour day-night cycle, making it an incorrect choice.
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