NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. A client arrives in the emergency department after severely lacerating the left hand with a knife. HR 96, BP 150/88, R36. The client is extremely anxious and crying uncontrollably. Based on this assessment, the nurse anticipates that this client would be in which acid-base imbalance?
- A. Respiratory acidosis
- B. Respiratory alkalosis
- C. Metabolic acidosis
- D. Metabolic alkalosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is respiratory alkalosis. Hyperventilation due to anxiety, pain, shock, severe infection, fever, or liver failure can lead to respiratory alkalosis. In this scenario, the client is extremely anxious and crying uncontrollably, indicating an increased respiratory rate and CO2 loss. Respiratory acidosis (choice A) is incorrect as it is characterized by an increase in CO2 levels, not a loss. Metabolic acidosis (choice C) involves a decrease in blood pH due to an accumulation of acids or loss of bicarbonate, which is not the case here. Metabolic alkalosis (choice D) results from excess bicarbonate or a loss of acids, not from increased CO2 loss due to hyperventilation.
2. A nurse is instructing a patient about the warning signs of Digitalis side effects. Which of the following side effects should the nurse tell the patient are sometimes associated with excessive levels of Digitalis?
- A. Seizures
- B. Muscle weakness
- C. Depression
- D. Anxiety
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Muscle weakness.' Palpitations and muscle weakness are commonly associated with excessive levels of Digitalis. Seizures, depression, and anxiety are not typically linked to Digitalis toxicity. Seizures could be more related to other medications or conditions, while depression and anxiety are not commonly reported side effects of Digitalis.
3. A 32-year-old male with a complaint of dizziness has an order for Morphine via IV. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Check the patient's chest x-ray results.
- B. Retake vitals including blood pressure.
- C. Perform a neurological screening on the patient.
- D. Request the physician on-call to assess the patient.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to retake the patient's vitals, including blood pressure. Dizziness can be a sign of hypotension, which may be a contraindication for administering Morphine. Checking the chest x-ray results (Choice A) would not be the priority in this case as addressing the dizziness is more urgent. Performing a neurological screening (Choice C) may be important but not the first step when a patient presents with dizziness and an order for Morphine. Requesting the physician to assess the patient (Choice D) should come after the initial assessment and vitals retake.
4. What task should the RN perform first?
- A. Changing a burn dressing that is scheduled every four hours.
- B. Doing pinsite care on a client in skeletal traction ordered TID.
- C. Teaching a newly diagnosed diabetic about diet and exercise.
- D. Assessing a newly admitted client.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess a newly admitted client first. When a client is newly admitted, it is crucial to perform an assessment promptly. The initial assessment and establishment of a care plan should be completed within a specific timeframe to ensure the client's needs are met effectively. Choices A, B, and C involve important tasks but should be prioritized after the initial assessment of the newly admitted client to ensure timely and appropriate care delivery. Changing a burn dressing (Choice A) and doing pinsite care on a client in skeletal traction (Choice B) are time-sensitive tasks but can be safely delayed briefly to conduct the initial assessment. Teaching a newly diagnosed diabetic about diet and exercise (Choice C) is important for the client's long-term care but can be scheduled after the immediate needs assessment of the newly admitted client.
5. What is the most common cause of acute renal failure?
- A. Shock
- B. Nephrotoxic drugs
- C. Enlarged prostate
- D. Diabetes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Shock.' Acute renal failure is commonly caused by inadequate blood flow to the kidneys, which can occur in cases of shock. This leads to decreased kidney function and potential kidney damage. While nephrotoxic drugs can also cause acute renal failure, shock is the primary and most common cause. An enlarged prostate may lead to obstructive uropathy but is not the most prevalent cause of acute renal failure. Diabetes is typically associated with chronic kidney disease rather than acute renal failure.
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