Nursing Elites

1. A child comes to the clinic with a skin rash. The maculopapular lesions are distributed around the mouth and have honey-colored drainage. The caregiver states that the rash is getting worse and seems to spread with the child's scratching. Which of the following advisory comments should be given?

• A. The history and presentation might indicate chickenpox, a highly contagious disease.
• B. The lesions might indicate a noncontagious infection that does not require isolation.
• C. The history and presentation might indicate an infectious illness called impetigo.
• D. The lesions are not contagious unless others have open wounds or lesions themselves.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The scenario describes classic impetigo, characterized by maculopapular lesions with honey-colored drainage, typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. Antibiotic therapy is usually indicated for impetigo. Chickenpox, a highly contagious disease, presents with a history of high fever followed by a vesicular rash, different from the described maculopapular lesions with honey-colored drainage. Choice A is incorrect as the presentation is not consistent with chickenpox. Choice B is incorrect because impetigo is contagious, especially through direct contact. Choice D is also incorrect as impetigo is a contagious skin infection regardless of others having open wounds or lesions.

2. The nurse notes that a healthcare provider has documented the following prescription in a client's record: Furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg stat once. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administering the medication
• B. Drawing up the medication in a syringe
• C. Planning to have the nurse on the next shift administer the medication
• D. Contacting the healthcare provider

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to contact the healthcare provider. The prescription provided lacks crucial information such as the route of administration. Before administering any medication, the nurse must clarify any missing details with the provider, especially for a stat prescription that requires immediate administration. Drawing up or administering the medication without verifying the route of administration is unsafe and can lead to errors. Planning for the next shift nurse to administer the medication is not appropriate in this scenario as the stat order necessitates immediate action. Therefore, the best course of action is to contact the healthcare provider to obtain clarification on the prescription.

3. When the nurse is determining the appropriate size of an oropharyngeal airway to insert, what part of a client's body should she measure?

• A. corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear
• B. corner of the eye to the top of the ear
• C. tip of the chin to the sternum
• D. tip of the nose to the earlobe

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct! When sizing an oropharyngeal airway, the nurse should measure from the corner of the client's mouth to the tragus of the ear. This measurement ensures that the airway is the appropriate length to reach the pharynx without being too long or too short. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not provide the correct anatomical landmarks for determining the size of an oropharyngeal airway. Measuring from the corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear is a standard method to ensure proper airway size and prevent complications during airway management.

4. Which of the following tasks are appropriate for an LPN to perform?

• A. Adjusting the cervical traction device of a 68-year-old client as instructed by the charge nurse.
• B. performing operation on a woman in labour
• C. Assessing a 36-year-old man newly admitted for chest pain.
• D. Obtaining an occult blood sample from a 16-year-old client with ulcerative colitis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tasks appropriate for an LPN to perform include teaching, obtaining samples, and documenting. LPNs can educate clients on care practices, such as teaching a new mother how to care for her baby. Obtaining samples, like an occult blood sample, falls within the scope of an LPN's responsibilities. Assessments, especially initial assessments, should be conducted by a registered nurse or physician, making option C incorrect. Adjusting devices like a cervical traction device should be done based on direct orders from prescribing providers, not charge nurses, making option A inappropriate for an LPN's role.

5. Which of these statements from the caregiver of a palliative care client indicates a proper understanding?

• A. This treatment plan usually indicates a prognosis of less than 6 months.
• B. We will need to stay in the hospital to receive this level of care.
• C. The main therapeutic goals are comfort and better quality of life.
• D. The medications to treat the underlying disease will be continued.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The main therapeutic goals are comfort and better quality of life.' This statement reflects a proper understanding of palliative care, which focuses on improving the patient's quality of life and providing comfort. It does not necessarily mean a prognosis of less than 6 months or require hospitalization. Choice A is incorrect because palliative care can be provided regardless of the prognosis. Choice B is wrong as palliative care can be administered in various settings, not just hospitals. Choice D is inaccurate as palliative care aims to improve symptoms and quality of life, so medications may be adjusted but not necessarily stopped.

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