the client is admitted to the emergency room with shortness of breath anxiety and tachycardia his ecg reveals atrial ibrillation with a ventricular re
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

PN Nclex Questions 2024

1. While the client is receiving quinidine, the nurse should monitor the ECG for:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quinidine can cause widened Q-T intervals and heart block, leading to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG. Other signs of myocardial toxicity associated with quinidine include notched P waves and widened QRS complexes. Common side effects of quinidine include diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting, while less common effects may include tinnitus, vertigo, headache, visual disturbances, and confusion. Monitoring for a prolonged QT interval is crucial due to the potential risk of serious arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are not typically associated with the use of quinidine and are therefore incorrect in this context.

2. A client with a diagnosis of Schizophrenia has been released from an acute care setting. The client had a prolonged recovery from relapse. One of the parents says to the discharge nurse, 'I do not understand what is going on. The hospital said she was better, but all she does is sit around all day and smoke. We cannot get her to go to the vocational training you arranged.' The nurse recognizes that more teaching is needed about

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse conducting discharge teaching must emphasize the extended recovery process and the potential side effects of medications used to prevent relapse in individuals with schizophrenia. In this scenario, it is crucial for the parents to understand that the client's behavior may be influenced by the medication's sedative qualities and the time required for full recovery. While support groups can assist caregivers in coping with their emotions and providing better care, the priority here is educating on the recovery process and medication effects. Motivational techniques are beneficial but may not be the immediate focus in this situation.

3. A 26-year-old single woman is knocked down and robbed while walking her dog one evening. Three months later, she presents at the crisis clinic, stating that she cannot put this experience out of her mind. She complains of nightmares, extreme fear of being outside or alone, and difficulty eating and sleeping. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the best response as it provides empathy and encourages the client to talk about her experience, which can be therapeutic. This approach validates the client's feelings and offers support. By acknowledging the difficulty and fear experienced by the client, the nurse opens the door for the client to express her emotions and begin the process of coping with the trauma. Choices A, C, and D do not address the emotional impact of the traumatic event or provide an opportunity for the client to express her feelings and concerns. Choice A immediately jumps to medication without exploring other supportive interventions. Choice C focuses on practical solutions without addressing the client's emotional needs. Choice D suggests a drastic solution without considering the client's emotional state or preferences.

4. The client is admitted to the unit after a cholecystectomy. Montgomery straps are utilized with this client. The nurse is aware that Montgomery straps are utilized on this client because:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Montgomery straps are used to secure dressings that require frequent changes due to the large amount of drainage usually present after a cholecystectomy. They are also beneficial for clients allergic to various types of tape. Answer A is incorrect as the client is not at higher risk of evisceration. Answer C is incorrect because Montgomery straps are not used to support drains. Answer D is incorrect as sutures or clips are typically used to secure the incision after gallbladder surgery, not Montgomery straps.

5. Which of the following clients should refrain from therapy with the thiazide diuretic hydrochlorothiazide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a client with diabetes mellitus, type II. Thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide can cause metabolic abnormalities, including elevated blood glucose levels. This increase is linked to diuretic-induced potassium deficiency, which reduces insulin secretion, leading to higher plasma glucose levels. Thiazides are commonly used in clients with renal impairment and hypertension. Moreover, thiazides decrease calcium excretion, reducing the risk of renal calculi, so it is not contraindicated for clients with kidney stones. Therefore, clients with diabetes mellitus, type II should avoid therapy with hydrochlorothiazide due to the potential adverse effects on blood glucose levels.

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