Nursing Elites

1. While the client is receiving quinidine, the nurse should monitor the ECG for:

• A. Peaked P wave
• B. Elevated ST segment
• C. Inverted T wave
• D. Prolonged QT interval

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quinidine can cause widened Q-T intervals and heart block, leading to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG. Other signs of myocardial toxicity associated with quinidine include notched P waves and widened QRS complexes. Common side effects of quinidine include diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting, while less common effects may include tinnitus, vertigo, headache, visual disturbances, and confusion. Monitoring for a prolonged QT interval is crucial due to the potential risk of serious arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are not typically associated with the use of quinidine and are therefore incorrect in this context.

2. The nursing assistant hitting the client in the long-term care facility can be charged with:

• A. Negligence
• B. Tort
• C. Assault
• D. Malpractice

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assault is the appropriate charge in this scenario. Assault involves physically striking or touching someone inappropriately. Negligence (Choice A) refers to failing to provide proper care for the client. Tort (Choice B) is a wrongful act committed against the client or their property. Malpractice (Choice D) is the failure to perform an act that should have been done or the improper performance of an act resulting in harm to the client. Since the nursing assistant physically struck the client, the charge of assault is most fitting.

3. A 24-year-old female client is scheduled for surgery in the morning. What is the primary responsibility of the nurse?

• A. Taking the vital signs
• B. Obtaining the permit
• C. Explaining the procedure
• D. Checking the lab work

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary responsibility of the nurse is to take the vital signs before any surgery. This action helps assess the client's baseline condition and identify any abnormalities that need addressing before the procedure. Obtaining the permit (choice B) is typically handled by administrative staff, explaining the procedure (choice C) is usually done by the healthcare provider performing the surgery, and checking the lab work (choice D) is often part of the pre-operative assessment conducted by the healthcare provider. Therefore, in this context, these actions are not the primary responsibility of the nurse.

4. Ashley and her boyfriend Chris, both 19 years old, are transported to the Emergency Department after being involved in a motorcycle accident. Chris is badly hurt, but Ashley has no apparent injuries, though she appears confused and has trouble focusing on what is going on around her. She complains of dizziness and nausea. Her pulse is rapid, and she is hyperventilating. The nurse should assess Ashley's level of anxiety as:

• A. mild.
• B. moderate.
• C. severe.
• D. panic.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Explanation: Ashley is displaying symptoms of severe anxiety, including confusion, trouble focusing, dizziness, nausea, rapid pulse, and hyperventilation. These somatic symptoms, along with changes in vital signs, indicate severe anxiety. In severe anxiety, individuals are unable to solve problems and have a poor grasp of their environment. On the other hand, mild anxiety may lead to mild discomfort or even enhanced performance, while moderate anxiety results in difficulty grasping information and minor changes in vital signs. Panic, the most severe level of anxiety, involves markedly disturbed behavior and a potential loss of touch with reality. Therefore, based on Ashley's symptoms, her anxiety level should be assessed as severe.

5. The mother of a newborn child is very upset. The child has a cleft lip and palate. The type of crisis this mother is experiencing is:

• A. reactive.
• B. maturational.
• C. situational.
• D. adventitious.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The mother is experiencing a situational crisis as the unexpected birth of a child with a cleft lip and palate has placed her in a challenging situation she did not anticipate. This type of crisis is triggered by specific events and circumstances. Choice A, reactive, implies responding to a stressor after it has occurred, which is not the case here. Choice B, maturational, refers to stress related to developmental stages, not to external events like the child's condition. Choice D, adventitious, involves crises resulting from events outside one's control, such as natural disasters, which do not apply in this scenario.

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