Nursing Elites

1. While the client is receiving quinidine, the nurse should monitor the ECG for:

• A. Peaked P wave
• B. Elevated ST segment
• C. Inverted T wave
• D. Prolonged QT interval

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quinidine can cause widened Q-T intervals and heart block, leading to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG. Other signs of myocardial toxicity associated with quinidine include notched P waves and widened QRS complexes. Common side effects of quinidine include diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting, while less common effects may include tinnitus, vertigo, headache, visual disturbances, and confusion. Monitoring for a prolonged QT interval is crucial due to the potential risk of serious arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are not typically associated with the use of quinidine and are therefore incorrect in this context.

2. During a well-baby check of a 6-month-old infant, the nurse notes abrasions and petechiae of the palate. The nurse should:

• A. inquire about the possibility of sexual abuse.
• B. ask about the types of foods the child is eating.
• C. request to see the type of bottle used for feedings.
• D. question the parent about objects the child plays with.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to inquire about the possibility of sexual abuse. Injuries to the soft palate such as bruising, abrasions, and petechiae can be signs of sexual abuse in infants. While oral sex may not leave significant physical evidence, these findings should raise suspicion. Option A is correct as it focuses on addressing potential abuse. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because the child's diet, the type of bottle used for feedings, and play objects are not likely related to the observed injuries. The presence of oral injuries suggests considering sexual abuse rather than other factors.

3. The nurse is developing a care plan for a client with severe anxiety. An appropriate outcome for the client is that within 4 days the client should:

• A. Have decreased anxiety.
• B. Talk to the nurse for 10 minutes.
• C. Sit quietly for 30 minutes.
• D. Develop an adaptive coping mechanism.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When developing outcome criteria for a client with severe anxiety, it is crucial for the goals to be specific, measurable, and realistic. In this scenario, the most appropriate outcome is for the client to talk to the nurse for 10 minutes within 4 days. This goal is specific (talking for a defined duration), measurable (10 minutes), and realistic given the client's condition. Expecting a severely anxious client to sit quietly for 30 minutes is not realistic and may even exacerbate their anxiety. While developing an adaptive coping mechanism is important, it is a broader long-term goal and may not be achievable within the specified timeframe. Having decreased anxiety is a desirable outcome, but it lacks specificity and measurability, making it less suitable as an immediate goal.

4. Activities of effective supervisors can be task-related or people-related activities. An example of a task-related supervisory activity is:

• A. coaching.
• B. evaluating.
• C. delegating.
• D. facilitating.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Delegating is the act of assigning work to those capable and competent to do the work, making it a task-related supervisory activity. Coaching, evaluating, and facilitating are people-related supervisory activities. Coaching involves guiding and developing individuals, evaluating entails assessing performance, and facilitating focuses on enabling tasks and processes. These activities are more centered on interacting with and supporting people rather than directly assigning tasks. Therefore, in the context of task-related activities, delegating stands out as the correct choice.

5. The nurse is assisting the RN with discharge instructions for a client with an implantable defibrillator. What discharge instruction is essential?

• A. "You can eat food prepared in a microwave."?
• B. "You should avoid moving the shoulder on the side of the defibrillator site for 6 weeks."?
• C. "You should use your cellphone on your right side."?
• D. "You will be able to fly on a commercial airliner with the defibrillator in place."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The essential discharge instruction for a client with an implantable defibrillator is to use any battery-operated machinery on the opposite side, including cellphones. This is to prevent interference with the device. Additionally, the client should monitor their pulse rate and report any dizziness or fainting, which could indicate issues with the defibrillator. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because clients with implantable defibrillators can eat food prepared in the microwave, move their shoulder on the affected side after the initial healing period, and are allowed to fly on commercial airliners with the defibrillator in place.

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