Nursing Elites

1. While the client is receiving quinidine, the nurse should monitor the ECG for:

• A. Peaked P wave
• B. Elevated ST segment
• C. Inverted T wave
• D. Prolonged QT interval

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quinidine can cause widened Q-T intervals and heart block, leading to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG. Other signs of myocardial toxicity associated with quinidine include notched P waves and widened QRS complexes. Common side effects of quinidine include diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting, while less common effects may include tinnitus, vertigo, headache, visual disturbances, and confusion. Monitoring for a prolonged QT interval is crucial due to the potential risk of serious arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are not typically associated with the use of quinidine and are therefore incorrect in this context.

2. The chemotherapeutic DNA alkylating agents such as nitrogen mustards are effective because they:

• A. cross-link DNA strands with covalent bonds between alkyl groups on the drug and guanine bases on DNA.
• B. have few, if any, side effects.
• C. are used to treat multiple types of cancer.
• D. are cell-cycle-specific agents.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Alkylating agents, such as nitrogen mustards, are effective chemotherapeutic agents because they cross-link DNA strands with covalent bonds between alkyl groups on the drug and guanine bases on DNA. This cross-linking interferes with DNA replication and transcription, leading to cell death. Choice B is incorrect because alkylating agents have numerous side effects, including alopecia, nausea, vomiting, and myelosuppression. Choice C is incorrect because while nitrogen mustards are used to treat multiple types of cancer like chronic lymphocytic leukemia, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, and breast and ovarian cancer, their effectiveness is primarily due to DNA cross-linkage. Choice D is incorrect because alkylating agents are non-cell-cycle-specific agents, meaning they can act on cells in any phase of the cell cycle, not just on cells that are actively dividing.

3. A client reports hearing voices. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Touch the client to help him return to reality.
• B. Leave the client alone until reality returns.
• C. Ask the client to describe what is happening.
• D. Tell the client there are no voices.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client reports hearing voices, it might indicate hallucinations. It is essential for the nurse to ask the client to describe what is happening to gain a better understanding of the hallucinations. This approach helps in assessing the severity and content of the hallucinations, which can guide further interventions. Touching the client without consent can be intrusive and may escalate the situation, violating the client's personal space. Leaving the client alone may not address the underlying issue of hallucinations and can lead to potential risks if the client is distressed. Telling the client there are no voices denies their experience, invalidates their feelings, and can result in mistrust between the client and the nurse.

4. A 60-year-old widower is hospitalized after complaining of difficulty sleeping, extreme apprehension, shortness of breath, and a sense of impending doom. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. "You have nothing to worry about. You are in a safe place. Try to relax."?
• B. "Has anything happened recently or in the past that might have triggered these feelings?"?
• C. "We have given you a medication that helps to decrease feelings of anxiety."?
• D. "Take some deep breaths and try to calm down."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the best response as it shows empathy, acknowledges the patient's feelings, and opens the door for discussion about potential triggers for anxiety. This approach helps the patient explore the root cause of his anxiety and provides an opportunity for therapeutic communication. Choice A dismisses the patient's feelings and offers false reassurance, which may not address the underlying issue. Choices C and D do not encourage the patient to express his emotions or delve into the reasons behind his anxiety, hindering the therapeutic process.

5. A 26-year-old single woman is knocked down and robbed while walking her dog one evening. Three months later, she presents at the crisis clinic, stating that she cannot put this experience out of her mind. She complains of nightmares, extreme fear of being outside or alone, and difficulty eating and sleeping. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. "I will ask the physician to prescribe medication for you."?
• B. "That must have been a very difficult and frightening experience. It might be helpful to talk about it."?
• C. "In the future, you might walk your dog in a more populated area or hire someone else to take over this task."?
• D. "Have you thought of moving to a safer neighborhood?"?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the best response as it provides empathy and encourages the client to talk about her experience, which can be therapeutic. This approach validates the client's feelings and offers support. By acknowledging the difficulty and fear experienced by the client, the nurse opens the door for the client to express her emotions and begin the process of coping with the trauma. Choices A, C, and D do not address the emotional impact of the traumatic event or provide an opportunity for the client to express her feelings and concerns. Choice A immediately jumps to medication without exploring other supportive interventions. Choice C focuses on practical solutions without addressing the client's emotional needs. Choice D suggests a drastic solution without considering the client's emotional state or preferences.

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