Nursing Elites

1. While the client is receiving quinidine, the nurse should monitor the ECG for:

• A. Peaked P wave
• B. Elevated ST segment
• C. Inverted T wave
• D. Prolonged QT interval

Correct answer: Prolonged QT interval

Rationale: Quinidine can cause widened Q-T intervals and heart block, leading to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG. Other signs of myocardial toxicity associated with quinidine include notched P waves and widened QRS complexes. Common side effects of quinidine include diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting, while less common effects may include tinnitus, vertigo, headache, visual disturbances, and confusion. Monitoring for a prolonged QT interval is crucial due to the potential risk of serious arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are not typically associated with the use of quinidine and are therefore incorrect in this context.

2. When planning care of a client who has been diagnosed with Amphetamine Abuse, the nurse should use the knowledge that:

• A. Amphetamines increase energy by increasing dopamine levels at neural synapses.
• B. Amphetamines have a low risk of tolerance or addiction.
• C. Amphetamines produce a 10–20-second rush followed by a 2–4-hour high.
• D. Addiction to barbiturates and amphetamines is rare because they have opposite effects.

Correct answer: Amphetamines increase energy by increasing dopamine levels at neural synapses.

Rationale: The correct answer is that amphetamines increase energy by increasing dopamine levels at neural synapses. Amphetamines cause the release of norepinephrine and dopamine from storage vesicles into the synapse, leading to increased stimulation. It is important to note that clear patterns of tolerance and withdrawal have not been described with amphetamines. Choice B is incorrect as prolonged or excessive use of amphetamines can lead to psychosis, indicating a potential for addiction. Choice C is incorrect as the duration of the effects of amphetamines is typically longer than 2-4 hours. Choice D is incorrect as addiction to amphetamines is not rare; in fact, drug cravings are common and can lead to relapse, indicating a significant risk of addiction.

3. Narrow therapeutic index medications:

• A. are drug formulations with limited pharmacokinetic variability.
• B. have limited value and require no monitoring of blood levels.
• C. have less than a twofold difference in minimum toxic levels and minimum effective concentration in the blood
• D. have limited potency and side effects.

Correct answer: have less than a twofold difference in minimum toxic levels and minimum effective concentration in the blood

Rationale: The therapeutic index is the ratio between the median lethal dose and median effective dose of a drug, indicating the safety margin. Narrow therapeutic index medications have a small difference between minimum toxic levels and minimum effective concentration in the blood, making them high-risk drugs that require close monitoring to avoid toxicity. Choice A is incorrect because pharmacokinetics refer to drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination, not the therapeutic index. Choice B is incorrect because narrow therapeutic index drugs necessitate monitoring due to their narrow margin of safety. Choice D is incorrect because narrow therapeutic index drugs do not necessarily have limited potency but are characterized by a small window between efficacy and toxicity.

4. During the history assessment of an 80-year-old client, which statement made by the client might indicate a possible fluid and electrolyte imbalance?

• A. “My skin is always so dry.”
• B. “I often use a laxative for constipation.”
• C. “I have always liked to drink a lot of iced tea.”
• D. “I sometimes have a problem with dribbling urine.”

Correct answer: “I often use a laxative for constipation.”

Rationale: The correct answer is "I often use a laxative for constipation." Frequent use of laxatives can lead to diarrhea and electrolyte loss, indicating a possible fluid and electrolyte imbalance. Statements A, C, and D are not directly related to fluid and electrolyte imbalance. Statement A about dry skin may suggest dehydration, but it is less specific to electrolyte imbalance than the frequent use of laxatives. Statement C about drinking a lot of iced tea could potentially relate to fluid intake, but it doesn't directly indicate an imbalance. Statement D about dribbling urine is more indicative of a potential urinary issue rather than a fluid and electrolyte imbalance.

5. The nurse is assessing an elder whom the nurse suspects is being physically abused. The most important question for the nurse to ask is:

• A. “How much money do you keep around the house?”
• B. “Who provides your physical care?”
• C. “How close does your nearest relative live?”
• D. “What form of transportation do you use?”

Correct answer: “Who provides your physical care?”

Rationale: The most important question for the nurse to ask when suspecting elder abuse is 'Who provides your physical care?' This question is crucial as the primary caregiver, who is often the abuser in cases of elder abuse, lives with the client. Research has shown that spouses and adult children are the most common abusers. By inquiring about the provider of physical care, the nurse can assess the potential abuser's proximity to the elder. Choices A, C, and D are less pertinent to identifying the primary caregiver, who is more likely to be the abuser.

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