the client is admitted to the emergency room with shortness of breath anxiety and tachycardia his ecg reveals atrial ibrillation with a ventricular re
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NCLEX-PN

PN Nclex Questions 2024

1. While the client is receiving quinidine, the nurse should monitor the ECG for:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quinidine can cause widened Q-T intervals and heart block, leading to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG. Other signs of myocardial toxicity associated with quinidine include notched P waves and widened QRS complexes. Common side effects of quinidine include diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting, while less common effects may include tinnitus, vertigo, headache, visual disturbances, and confusion. Monitoring for a prolonged QT interval is crucial due to the potential risk of serious arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are not typically associated with the use of quinidine and are therefore incorrect in this context.

2. The client with a myocardial infarction comes to the nurse's station stating that he is ready to go home because there is nothing wrong with him. Which defense mechanism is the client using?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Denial. The client displaying denial refuses to acknowledge the reality of having a myocardial infarction. Rationalization (choice A) involves making excuses for behavior, not denying a condition. Projection (choice C) is attributing one's thoughts or feelings to others, not denying an illness. Conversion reaction (choice D) is converting psychological distress into physical symptoms, which is not evident in this scenario. Therefore, denial is the defense mechanism being used in this situation.

3. As a type of quality indicator, an example of a structure standard is:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'a written philosophy.' Structure standards define the conditions needed to operate a system and do not directly involve client care. Examples include philosophy, objectives, goals, hours of operation, and management responsibility. Choices B, C, and D involve specific procedures and protocols related to client care, which are not structure standards.

4. The client is scheduled for a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis. Which medication should be kept available during the test?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis, Atropine sulfate should be kept available as it is the antidote for Tensilon and is administered to manage cholinergic crises that may occur during the test. Atropine sulfate helps counteract the excessive stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system caused by Tensilon. Furosemide (choice B) is a diuretic and not related to managing Tensilon-induced crises. Prostigmin (choice C) is used to treat Myasthenia Gravis itself, not for managing the effects of Tensilon. Promethazine (choice D) is an antiemetic and antianxiety agent, which is not necessary for a Tensilon test. Therefore, Atropine sulfate (choice A) is the correct medication to have available during a Tensilon test, making choices B, C, and D incorrect in this context.

5. The nurse is working with families who have been displaced by a fire in an apartment complex. What is the priority intervention during the initial assessment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to provide a liaison to meet housing needs. In the initial assessment after a disaster like a fire, ensuring basic needs such as housing, clothing, and food are met is the priority. Once the physical needs are addressed, the nurse can then focus on assisting clients in managing the psychological effects of loss. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority during the initial assessment as addressing housing needs should come first to provide a sense of stability and security for the affected families.

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