Nursing Elites

1. While the client is receiving quinidine, the nurse should monitor the ECG for:

• A. Peaked P wave
• B. Elevated ST segment
• C. Inverted T wave
• D. Prolonged QT interval

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quinidine can cause widened Q-T intervals and heart block, leading to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG. Other signs of myocardial toxicity associated with quinidine include notched P waves and widened QRS complexes. Common side effects of quinidine include diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting, while less common effects may include tinnitus, vertigo, headache, visual disturbances, and confusion. Monitoring for a prolonged QT interval is crucial due to the potential risk of serious arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are not typically associated with the use of quinidine and are therefore incorrect in this context.

2. A complication of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is the development of cholestasis. What is this condition?

• A. an inflammatory process of the extrahepatic bile ducts
• B. an arrest of the normal flow of bile
• C. an inflammation of the gallbladder
• D. the formation of gallstones

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cholestasis due to TPN administration is an intrahepatic process that interrupts the normal flow of bile. It is characterized by a reduction or stoppage of bile flow. Choice A, an inflammatory process of the extrahepatic bile ducts, refers to cholangitis, not cholestasis. Choice C, an inflammation of the gallbladder, describes cholecystitis, a different condition. Choice D, the formation of gallstones, is not correct as cholestasis is about the flow of bile, not the formation of gallstones.

3. How can the nurse best communicate to a client that he or she has been listening?

• A. restating the main feeling or thought the client has expressed
• B. making a judgment about the client's problem
• C. offering a leading question such as, 'And then what happened?'
• D. saying, 'I understand what you're saying.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best way for the nurse to communicate to a client that he or she has been listening is by restating the main feeling or thought the client has expressed. Restating helps the client validate the nurse's understanding of the communication, demonstrating active listening skills. Making judgments about the client's problem, as suggested in Choice B, can hinder effective communication by introducing bias and potential misinterpretation. Offering a leading question like in Choice C is not ideal for confirming understanding; it rather seeks more information. Choice D, simply saying 'I understand what you're saying,' may not convey active listening as effectively as restating the client's main feelings or thoughts, as it lacks the validation component present in restating.

4. When a staff member is observed not following the plan of care for a client with an antisocial personality disorder, what should the nurse do?

• A. confront the staff member immediately and say, "You know that is not the treatment plan."?
• B. write an incident report to create a paper trail of the staff member's failure to follow the planned program.
• C. ask the staff member to talk in private, and reinforce how antisocial clients try to divide staff.
• D. bring up the incident during the weekly conference so that this staff member is not assigned to work with antisocial persons again.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a staff member is observed not following the plan of care for a client with an antisocial personality disorder, it is crucial to address the issue promptly and effectively. Confronting the staff member immediately in front of the client may worsen the situation by enhancing the division of staff and compromising client care. Writing an incident report, although important for documentation, may not address the immediate need to correct the behavior. Bringing up the incident during a weekly conference may not be the most effective approach for immediate resolution. Asking the staff member to talk in private and reinforcing how antisocial clients try to divide staff is the best option. This approach allows for a constructive conversation to address the issue, provide education, and help the staff member develop skills to work effectively with this client population.

5. Fat emulsions are frequently administered as a part of total parenteral nutrition. Which statement is true regarding fat emulsions?

• A. They have a high energy-to-fluid-volume ratio.
• B. Even though hypertonic, they are well tolerated.
• C. They are a basic solution due to the addition of sodium hydroxide (NaOH).
• D. The pH is alkaline, making them compatible with most medications.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is that fat emulsions have a high energy-to-fluid-volume ratio. Fat emulsions are formulated in 10%, 20%, and 30% solutions and supply 1.1, 2, and 3 kilocalories, respectively, for each milliliter. In comparison, a milliliter of 5% dextrose only supplies 0.17 kilocalories. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is false because fat emulsions are essentially pH neutral and isotonic, not hypertonic. Choice C is incorrect because fat emulsions are not basic solutions; they are essentially pH neutral. Choice D is incorrect as fat emulsions are not alkaline; they are pH neutral, making them compatible with most medications.

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