NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Exam Cram
1. What is one characteristic of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
- A. The presence of circulating antibodies that neutralize HIV is evidence of exposure to HIV.
- B. HIV replication occurs intracellularly.
- C. HIV integrates its genetic material into the host cell's DNA.
- D. DNA replication is irrelevant to HIV.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. HIV integrates its genetic material into the host cell's DNA. The virus uses the enzyme reverse transcriptase to make a DNA copy of its RNA, which is then inserted into the genetic material of the infected cell. Choice A is incorrect because the presence of antibodies does not indicate immunity to HIV but rather exposure to the virus. Choice B is incorrect as HIV replication occurs intracellularly, inside the host cell. Choice D is irrelevant to the characteristics of HIV.
2. What do the following ABG values indicate: pH 7.38, PO2 78 mmHg, PCO2 36 mmHg, and HCO3 24 mEq/L?
- A. metabolic alkalosis
- B. homeostasis
- C. respiratory acidosis
- D. respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'homeostasis.' These ABG values fall within the normal range, indicating a state of balance and homeostasis. The pH is within the normal range (7.35-7.45), the PCO2 is normal (35-45 mmHg), and the HCO3 level is also normal (22-26 mEq/L). Choice A, 'metabolic alkalosis,' is incorrect because the pH, PCO2, and HCO3 levels are not indicative of metabolic alkalosis. Choice C, 'respiratory acidosis,' is incorrect as the pH and PCO2 values are not elevated. Choice D, 'respiratory alkalosis,' is incorrect as the pH and PCO2 levels are not decreased. Therefore, the ABG values provided do not correspond to any acid-base disturbance, confirming that the patient is in a state of homeostasis.
3. A client arrives in the emergency department after severely lacerating the left hand with a knife. HR 96, BP 150/88, R36. The client is extremely anxious and crying uncontrollably. Based on this assessment, the nurse anticipates that this client would be in which acid-base imbalance?
- A. Respiratory acidosis
- B. Respiratory alkalosis
- C. Metabolic acidosis
- D. Metabolic alkalosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is respiratory alkalosis. Hyperventilation due to anxiety, pain, shock, severe infection, fever, or liver failure can lead to respiratory alkalosis. In this scenario, the client is extremely anxious and crying uncontrollably, indicating an increased respiratory rate and CO2 loss. Respiratory acidosis (choice A) is incorrect as it is characterized by an increase in CO2 levels, not a loss. Metabolic acidosis (choice C) involves a decrease in blood pH due to an accumulation of acids or loss of bicarbonate, which is not the case here. Metabolic alkalosis (choice D) results from excess bicarbonate or a loss of acids, not from increased CO2 loss due to hyperventilation.
4. A client had a C5 spinal cord contusion that resulted in quadriplegia. Two days after the injury occurred, the nurse sees his mother crying in the waiting room. The mother asks the nurse whether her son will ever play football again. Which of the following is the best initial response?
- A. "Given time and motivation, your son may regain some function, but I will seek more information from the physician."?
- B. Maintain a calm demeanor and speech pattern while addressing the mother's concerns.
- C. "I'm not sure, but I'll call the physician to discuss this with you promptly."?
- D. "It's not beneficial for your son if you get upset."?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best initial response in this situation is to acknowledge the mother's concern, express uncertainty, and offer to obtain more information from the physician. By saying, "I'm not sure, but I'll call the physician to discuss this with you promptly,"? the nurse demonstrates empathy, honesty, and a commitment to providing accurate information. Offering vague reassurance (Choice A) may raise false hopes as outcomes for spinal cord injuries are unpredictable. While maintaining a calm demeanor (Choice B) is important, it does not directly address the mother's immediate need for information. Discouraging the mother from feeling upset (Choice D) is dismissive of her emotions and does not address her question, which is seeking information about her son's prognosis.
5. A 32-year-old male with a complaint of dizziness has an order for Morphine via IV. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Check the patient's chest x-ray results.
- B. Retake vitals including blood pressure.
- C. Perform a neurological screening on the patient.
- D. Request the physician on-call to assess the patient.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to retake the patient's vitals, including blood pressure. Dizziness can be a sign of hypotension, which may be a contraindication for administering Morphine. Checking the chest x-ray results (Choice A) would not be the priority in this case as addressing the dizziness is more urgent. Performing a neurological screening (Choice C) may be important but not the first step when a patient presents with dizziness and an order for Morphine. Requesting the physician to assess the patient (Choice D) should come after the initial assessment and vitals retake.
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