which of the following is true concerning human immunodeficiency virus hiv
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX PN Exam Cram

1. What is one characteristic of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. HIV integrates its genetic material into the host cell's DNA. The virus uses the enzyme reverse transcriptase to make a DNA copy of its RNA, which is then inserted into the genetic material of the infected cell. Choice A is incorrect because the presence of antibodies does not indicate immunity to HIV but rather exposure to the virus. Choice B is incorrect as HIV replication occurs intracellularly, inside the host cell. Choice D is irrelevant to the characteristics of HIV.

2. The nurse is caring for a 44-year-old client diagnosed with hypoparathyroidism. Which electrolyte imbalance is closely associated with hypoparathyroidism?

Correct answer: A.

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypocalcemia. In hypoparathyroidism, where the parathyroid glands are not producing sufficient parathyroid hormone, calcium levels become inadequate. This leads to hypocalcemia, characterized by symptoms such as muscle spasms, anxiety, seizures, hypotension, and congestive heart failure. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with hypoparathyroidism. While hyperphosphatemia can be seen in hypoparathyroidism due to decreasing calcium levels, the question specifically asks about the primary electrolyte imbalance closely related to hypoparathyroidism, which is hypocalcemia.

3. A client with asthma develops respiratory acidosis. Based on this diagnosis, what should the nurse expect the client's serum potassium level to be?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In respiratory acidosis, the body retains CO2, leading to increased hydrogen ion concentration and a drop in blood pH. As pH decreases, serum potassium levels increase due to the movement of potassium out of cells to compensate for the acidosis. Elevated serum potassium levels are expected in respiratory acidosis. Choice A ('normal') is incorrect because potassium levels are expected to be elevated in respiratory acidosis. Choice C ('low') is incorrect as potassium levels rise in this condition. Choice D ('unrelated to the pH') is incorrect as serum potassium levels are directly impacted by changes in pH in respiratory acidosis.

4. In the Emergency Department (ED), which client should the nurse see first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the Emergency Department, the priority is to assess and manage clients based on the urgency of their conditions. A client with adrenal insufficiency presenting with weakness should be seen first as this could indicate a state of shock, which requires immediate attention to stabilize the client's condition. Weakness in adrenal insufficiency can progress rapidly to a life-threatening adrenal crisis. Choice A, a COPD client with a non-productive cough, may need treatment but is not immediately life-threatening. Choice B, a diabetic client with an infected sore on the foot, requires timely care to prevent complications but can generally wait for evaluation compared to the potential urgency of adrenal insufficiency. Choice D, a client with a fracture of the forearm in an air splint, is important but not as time-sensitive as a client potentially in shock.

5. What must the evening nurse do to facilitate the client's ECT treatment the next morning?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) treatment, obtaining informed consent is crucial before the procedure. This ensures the patient is aware of the risks, benefits, and alternatives to the treatment. Administering medications, ensuring rest, and dietary restrictions are important but not directly related to the specific requirement of obtaining informed consent for ECT. The correct answer, ensuring the patient signs an informed consent form, is essential to uphold the patient's autonomy and ensure they have the necessary information to make an informed decision about their treatment.

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