Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following foods should be avoided by clients who are prone to developing heartburn as a result of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

• A. lettuce
• B. eggs
• C. chocolate
• D. butterscotch

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is chocolate. Ingestion of chocolate can reduce lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure, leading to reflux and clinical symptoms of GERD. Lettuce and eggs do not significantly affect LES pressure, making them less likely to trigger GERD symptoms. Butterscotch, like lettuce and eggs, does not have a notable effect on LES pressure, so it is not as likely to worsen GERD symptoms as chocolate. Therefore, chocolate is the food to be avoided by clients prone to heartburn due to GERD.

2. What sign might the nurse observe in a client with a high ammonia level?

• A. coma
• B. edema
• C. hypoxia
• D. polyuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Coma is a sign that a nurse might observe in a client with a high ammonia level. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by impaired brain function, which can progress to coma. Edema (choice B) is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in body tissues, not typically associated with high ammonia levels. Hypoxia (choice C) is a condition of inadequate oxygen supply to tissues and is not directly related to high ammonia levels. Polyuria (choice D) refers to excessive urination and is not a typical sign of high ammonia levels.

3. A neighbor telephones the nurse to tell her that her child has erythema infectiosum and asks for information. The nurse knows that another name for the disorder is:

• A. Kawasaki disease
• B. rheumatic disease
• C. lupus erythematosus
• D. fifth disease

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'fifth disease.' Erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease, is a parvovirus flu-like illness that is self-limiting but contagious for two to three weeks. Choice A, Kawasaki disease, is a different condition that involves inflammation of the blood vessels, predominantly affecting children. Choices B and C, rheumatic disease and lupus erythematosus, are also different conditions unrelated to erythema infectiosum.

4. Which of the following isoenzymes is elevated in a client who has had a myocardial infarction?

• A. CPK-BB
• B. CPK-MM
• C. CPK-MB
• D. CPK-MI

Correct answer: C

Rationale: CPK-MB is the correct answer as it is elevated in clients who have had a myocardial infarction. CPK-BB is elevated in clients with brain damage, and CPK-MM is elevated in clients with skeletal muscle damage. CPK-MI, mentioned in the rationale, does not exist, making it an incorrect choice.

5. An LPN is talking with a client scheduled to undergo a vasectomy in the next few minutes. He states, "I know I signed the form and all, but I'm not feeling so sure of this. It can be reversed pretty easily, right?"? What is the LPN's best response?

• A. "Yes, vasectomies can be reversed, but once you have it, you may regret it later."?
• B. "It's normal to feel a little nervous before a procedure like this."?
• C. "It sounds like you have a few more questions you'd like answered. Let me grab the doctor quickly so he can answer them for you."?
• D. "It sounds like you might be a little nervous. Don't worry, this is a pretty minor procedure, and the doctor doing it is the best we have. You're in great hands."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best response for the LPN is to acknowledge the client's concerns and offer to provide more information. By offering to get the doctor to answer any additional questions, the LPN shows respect for the client's right to informed consent. Option A provides some information but dismisses the client's uncertainty and implies they won't regret the decision, which may not be the case. Option B acknowledges nervousness but doesn't directly address the client's request for more information. Option D attempts to reassure the client but fails to address the need for additional questions to be answered by the doctor.

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