Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following foods should be avoided by clients who are prone to developing heartburn as a result of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

• A. lettuce
• B. eggs
• C. chocolate
• D. butterscotch

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is chocolate. Ingestion of chocolate can reduce lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure, leading to reflux and clinical symptoms of GERD. Lettuce and eggs do not significantly affect LES pressure, making them less likely to trigger GERD symptoms. Butterscotch, like lettuce and eggs, does not have a notable effect on LES pressure, so it is not as likely to worsen GERD symptoms as chocolate. Therefore, chocolate is the food to be avoided by clients prone to heartburn due to GERD.

2. What should a client room environment include?

• A. a made bed, fresh water, thermostat regulation, and clean floors in all occupied client areas.
• B. a made bed, comfort and safety, a clutter-free area, hygiene articles nearby.
• C. accident prevention, comfort, a room (including furniture) that has been cleaned with chloroseptic wash, a bed that is made every other day.
• D. odor control (by spraying the room with deodorizers), closet storage of all client objects, a clean room. (Gloves should be worn when cleaning.)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client room environment should include a made bed to provide a sense of neatness and comfort, ensuring the client's safety at all times. It is important to maintain a clutter-free area to prevent accidents and promote a relaxing environment. Having hygiene articles nearby allows the client easy access to personal care items. Choice A is incorrect because while fresh water and thermostat regulation are important, they are not essential components of a client room environment. Choice C is incorrect as it emphasizes more on cleaning procedures rather than creating a comfortable and safe environment for the client. Choice D is incorrect as it emphasizes odor control and storage rather than the client's comfort and safety.

3. When a client is having a seizure and their blood oxygen saturation drops from 92% to 82%, what should the nurse do first?

• A. Open the airway.
• B. Administer oxygen.
• C. Suction the client.
• D. Check for breathing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is experiencing a seizure and their blood oxygen saturation drops, the priority action for the nurse is to open the airway. Ensuring a clear airway is essential to maintain oxygenation during a seizure episode. Administering oxygen may be necessary but is secondary to ensuring a patent airway. Suctioning the client should only be done if there is an airway obstruction. Checking for breathing is important, but opening the airway takes precedence to support ventilation and oxygenation.

4. A client is having a seizure; his blood oxygen saturation drops from 92% to 82%. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Open the airway.
• B. Administer oxygen.
• C. Suction the client.
• D. Check for breathing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is having a seizure and their blood oxygen saturation drops significantly, the priority action for the nurse is to open the airway. This allows for adequate oxygenation and ventilation. Administering oxygen can come after ensuring the airway is clear. Suctioning the client should be done if there is an airway obstruction, and checking for breathing is part of the assessment but opening the airway takes precedence to ensure proper oxygenation and ventilation during a critical event like a seizure.

5. The nurse manager of a quality improvement program asks a nurse in the neurological unit to conduct a retrospective audit. Which action should the auditing nurse plan to perform in this type of audit?

• A. Checking the crash cart to ensure that all needed supplies are readily available in case of an emergency
• B. Checking the documentation written by a new nursing graduate on her assigned clients at the end of the shift
• C. Reviewing neurological assessment checklists for all clients on the unit to ensure that these assessments are being conducted as prescribed
• D. Obtaining the assigned medical record from the hospital's medical record room to review documentation made during a client's hospital stay

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quality improvement, also known as performance improvement, focuses on processes contributing to client safety and care outcomes. Retrospective audits involve reviewing medical records after discharge for compliance with standards. Concurrent audits assess staff compliance during a client's stay. Therefore, obtaining the medical record from the hospital's record room for review is crucial in a retrospective audit. Options A, B, and C are more suited for concurrent audits as they involve real-time assessment during a client's stay.

Similar Questions