Nursing Elites

1. The nurse has completed client teaching about introducing solid foods to an infant. To evaluate teaching, the nurse asks the mother to identify an appropriate first solid food. Which of the following is an appropriate response?

• A. pureed canned squash
• B. pureed apples
• C. yogurt
• D. infant rice cereal

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is infant rice cereal. Single-grain infant cereals are recommended as the first solid food because they are easily digestible and have added iron content. Choice C, yogurt, is incorrect because yogurt is a milk product and should be delayed until the child is 12 months old due to the risk of milk allergy. Choices A and B are incorrect because fruits and vegetables are typically introduced after cereals to help the infant get accustomed to solid foods gradually.

2. Which of the following NSAIDs is most commonly used for a brief period for acute pain?

• A. Advil
• B. Aleve
• C. Toradol
• D. Bextra

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Toradol is the correct answer because it is an NSAID known for its effectiveness in managing acute pain for short durations. It can be administered via intramuscular (IM), intravenous (IV), or oral (PO) routes. Advil (choice A) and Aleve (choice B) are commonly used for mild to moderate pain but may not be as effective for acute pain requiring immediate relief. Bextra (choice D) was withdrawn from the market due to safety concerns, making it an inappropriate choice for acute pain management.

3. What sign might the nurse observe in a client with a high ammonia level?

• A. coma
• B. edema
• C. hypoxia
• D. polyuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Coma is a sign that a nurse might observe in a client with a high ammonia level. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by impaired brain function, which can progress to coma. Edema (choice B) is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in body tissues, not typically associated with high ammonia levels. Hypoxia (choice C) is a condition of inadequate oxygen supply to tissues and is not directly related to high ammonia levels. Polyuria (choice D) refers to excessive urination and is not a typical sign of high ammonia levels.

4. The healthcare provider sustains a needle puncture that requires HIV prophylaxis. Which of the following medication regimens should be used?

• A. an antibiotic such as Metronidazole and a protease inhibitor (Saquinavir)
• B. two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• C. one protease inhibitor such as Nelfinavir
• D. two protease inhibitors

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario of a needle puncture requiring HIV prophylaxis, the CDC recommends initiating treatment with two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, unless there is drug resistance. This regimen is preferred over other options such as a single protease inhibitor or two protease inhibitors due to its effectiveness and safety profile in this specific context. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors are commonly used in post-exposure prophylaxis due to their activity against HIV and lower risk of resistance development compared to other antiretroviral drug classes.

5. Which of the following is not considered one of the five rights of medication administration?

• A. client
• B. drug
• C. dose
• D. routine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The five rights of medication administration are dose, client, drug, route, and time. The correct answer is 'routine' as it is not commonly recognized as one of the essential rights in medication administration. Choice A, client, is necessary to ensure the right medication is administered to the right individual. Choice B, drug, is crucial to confirm the correct medication is given. Choice C, dose, is essential to ensure the right amount of medication is administered. Choice D, routine, is not typically included in the five rights of medication administration and is therefore the correct answer.

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