Nursing Elites

1. The primary organ for drug elimination is the:

• A. skin
• B. lung(s)
• C. kidney(s)
• D. liver

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the kidney(s) because most drugs are excreted in the urine, either as the parent compound or as drug metabolites. The skin is not the primary organ for drug elimination; only a few drugs are excreted in sweat. The lung(s) primarily excrete volatile gases with expiration, not drugs. While the liver metabolizes drugs, it is the kidney(s) that primarily eliminate drugs through urine, especially those with a molecular weight above 300.

2. The nurse wishes to decrease a client's use of denial and increase the client's expression of feelings. To do this, the nurse should:

• A. tell the client to stop using the defense mechanism of denial.
• B. positively reinforce each expression of feelings.
• C. instruct the client to express feelings.
• D. challenge the client each time denial is used.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario provided, the nurse aims to reduce the client's use of denial and encourage the expression of feelings. Positive reinforcement for each expression of feelings is an effective approach to achieve this goal. By positively reinforcing the client's expression of feelings, the nurse encourages the desired behavior, making it more likely for the client to continue sharing their emotions. This approach creates a supportive and accepting environment for the client. In contrast, telling the client to stop using denial (Choice A) may create resistance and inhibit communication by putting pressure on the client. Instructing the client to express feelings (Choice C) is less effective as it lacks the element of reinforcement that is essential for behavior modification. Challenging the client each time denial is used (Choice D) may lead to defensiveness and hinder the therapeutic relationship, making it a less favorable option.

3. A 32-year-old female frequently comes to her primary care provider with vague complaints of headache, abdominal pain, and trouble sleeping. In the past, the physician has dutifully prescribed medication, but little else. Which of the following comments by the nurse to the physician is appropriate?

• A. "Often women who are victims of domestic violence suffer vague symptoms such as abdominal pain."?
• B. "Often women become offended if asked about their safety in relationships."?
• C. "It is mandatory that all women be questioned about domestic violence."?
• D. "How would you feel to know that her partner is beating her and you didn't ask?"?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, "Often women who are victims of domestic violence suffer vague symptoms such as abdominal pain."? There is a well-documented correlation between vague symptoms like abdominal pain and battered woman syndrome. It is crucial for healthcare providers to inquire about potential domestic violence when presented with such symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as studies show that women are not generally offended by appropriately phrased questions about their safety in relationships. While it is not mandatory to question all women about domestic violence, it is advisable to at least ask a screening question regarding safety. Choice D is inappropriate as it uses a shaming tactic, which is not constructive and may create a hostile work environment. It's important for healthcare professionals to approach sensitive topics like domestic violence with empathy and professionalism.

4. Six hours after birth, the infant is found to have an area of swelling over the right parietal area that does not cross the suture line. The nurse should chart this finding as:

• A. A cephalohematoma
• B. Molding
• C. Subdural hematoma
• D. Caput succedaneum

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, a cephalohematoma. A cephalohematoma is an area of bleeding outside the cranium but beneath the periosteum, typically not crossing the suture line. Answer B, molding, is the overlapping of the bones of the cranium and does not involve bleeding, making it an incorrect choice. Answer C, a subdural hematoma, involves intracranial bleeding and is typically diagnosed through imaging studies like a CAT scan or x-ray. Answer D, caput succedaneum, is characterized by edema that crosses the suture line, unlike the described swelling in this case.

5. In performing a psychosocial assessment, the nurse begins by asking questions that encourage the client to describe problematic behaviors and situations. The next step is to elicit the client's

• A. feelings about what has been described.
• B. thoughts about what has been described.
• C. possible solutions to the problem.
• D. intent in sharing the description.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In performing a psychosocial assessment, the nurse follows a structured approach, starting with encouraging the client to describe problematic behaviors and situations. The next step is to elicit the client's thoughts about what has been described. This step helps gather more assessment data and understand how the client interprets the situation. Asking about feelings, exploring possible solutions, and understanding the client's intent in sharing the description are more complex processes that come later in the assessment. Therefore, the correct next step after describing behaviors and situations is to inquire about the client's thoughts.

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