Nursing Elites

1. The primary organ for drug elimination is the:

• A. skin
• B. lung(s)
• C. kidney(s)
• D. liver

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the kidney(s) because most drugs are excreted in the urine, either as the parent compound or as drug metabolites. The skin is not the primary organ for drug elimination; only a few drugs are excreted in sweat. The lung(s) primarily excrete volatile gases with expiration, not drugs. While the liver metabolizes drugs, it is the kidney(s) that primarily eliminate drugs through urine, especially those with a molecular weight above 300.

2. Some drugs are excreted into bile and delivered to the intestines. Prior to elimination from the body, the drug might be absorbed. This process is known as:

• A. hepatic clearance.
• B. total clearance.
• C. enterohepatic cycling.
• D. first-pass effect.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'enterohepatic cycling.' This process involves drugs being excreted into bile, delivered to the intestines, reabsorbed into the circulation, and can prolong the drug's presence in the body. 'Hepatic clearance' (Choice A) refers to the amount of drug eliminated by the liver. 'Total clearance' (Choice B) is the sum of all types of clearance including renal, hepatic, and respiratory. 'First-pass effect' (Choice D) is the amount of drug absorbed from the GI tract and metabolized by the liver before entering circulation, reducing the amount of drug available for systemic circulation.

3. While the client is receiving quinidine, the nurse should monitor the ECG for:

• A. Peaked P wave
• B. Elevated ST segment
• C. Inverted T wave
• D. Prolonged QT interval

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quinidine can cause widened Q-T intervals and heart block, leading to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG. Other signs of myocardial toxicity associated with quinidine include notched P waves and widened QRS complexes. Common side effects of quinidine include diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting, while less common effects may include tinnitus, vertigo, headache, visual disturbances, and confusion. Monitoring for a prolonged QT interval is crucial due to the potential risk of serious arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are not typically associated with the use of quinidine and are therefore incorrect in this context.

4. A client with cancer develops xerostomia. The nurse can help alleviate the discomfort associated with xerostomia by:

• A. Offering hard candy
• B. Administering analgesic medications
• C. Splinting swollen joints
• D. Providing saliva substitute

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Xerostomia is dry mouth, a common side effect in cancer patients. Providing a saliva substitute helps alleviate the discomfort associated with dry mouth by moistening the oral mucosa. Offering hard candy, as mentioned in choice A, can worsen xerostomia by increasing sugar content and potentially causing irritation. Administering analgesic medications, as in choice B, is not directly related to treating dry mouth. Splinting swollen joints, as in choice C, is irrelevant to xerostomia, which primarily affects the oral cavity.

5. The mother of a newborn child is very upset. The child has a cleft lip and palate. The type of crisis this mother is experiencing is:

• A. reactive.
• B. maturational.
• C. situational.
• D. adventitious.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The mother is experiencing a situational crisis as the unexpected birth of a child with a cleft lip and palate has placed her in a challenging situation she did not anticipate. This type of crisis is triggered by specific events and circumstances. Choice A, reactive, implies responding to a stressor after it has occurred, which is not the case here. Choice B, maturational, refers to stress related to developmental stages, not to external events like the child's condition. Choice D, adventitious, involves crises resulting from events outside one's control, such as natural disasters, which do not apply in this scenario.

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