ateenage client is admitted to the hospital because of acetaminophen tylenol overdose overdoses of acetaminophen can precipitate life threatening abn
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Psychosocial Integrity Nclex PN Questions

1. A teenage client is admitted to the hospital because of an acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose. Overdoses of acetaminophen can precipitate life-threatening abnormalities in which of the following organs?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acetaminophen is extensively metabolized in the liver. An acetaminophen overdose can lead to severe liver damage and even liver failure, which can be life-threatening. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Acetaminophen overdose does not typically cause life-threatening problems in the lungs, kidneys, or adrenal glands. While prolonged acetaminophen use may increase the risk of renal dysfunction, a single overdose primarily affects the liver.

2. The LPN is teaching a first-time mother about breastfeeding her newborn. Which statement, if made by the mother, would reflect that the teaching had been successful?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is, '"My baby should be nursing 8-12 times a day during this period."?' This statement indicates successful teaching because newborns should nurse 8-12 times during the newborn period to ensure they receive adequate nutrition and establish a good milk supply. This frequency helps in meeting the baby's demands for growth and development. Choice A is incorrect because while it mentions the appropriate number of wet diapers a day once the mother's milk comes in, it does not reflect successful teaching about breastfeeding frequency. Choice B is incorrect because it discusses feeding amounts in comparison to formula-fed babies, which is not a direct indicator of successful breastfeeding teaching. Choice D is incorrect because it focuses on the mother's concerns about milk coming in, not on understanding the feeding frequency needed for the newborn.

3. A client is taking hydrocodone (Vicodin) for chronic back pain. The client has required an increase in the dose and asks whether this means he is addicted to Vicodin. The nurse should base her reply on the knowledge that:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client requires an increased dose of a drug, such as in this case with hydrocodone, it suggests that the body has developed tolerance to the medication. Tolerance means that the client needs more of the drug to achieve the same effect as before. This does not inherently indicate addiction, which involves psychological behaviors related to substance use. Choice B describes drug dependence, where the client is preoccupied with obtaining the drug and experiences loss of control, which is not the same as tolerance. Choice C correctly points out that addiction is more than just physical dependence with withdrawal symptoms and tolerance; it includes psychological factors. Choice D is irrelevant as it discusses adjusting the medication for pain management, not addressing the client's concern about addiction.

4. The client is receiving heparin for thrombophlebitis of the left lower extremity. Which of the following drugs reverses the effects of heparin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, as it reverses its effects. Cyanocobalamin is a form of Vitamin B12 and is not used to reverse heparin effects. Streptokinase is a thrombolytic agent that is used to dissolve blood clots, not to reverse heparin effects. Sodium warfarin is an anticoagulant, but it is not the antidote for heparin. Therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reverse the effects of heparin.

5. The home health nurse is planning for the day's visits. Which client should be seen first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority client is the 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter. This client is at the highest risk for complications and requires immediate attention. Choice C, the 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line, is incorrect as Vancomycin administration can be scheduled at specific times and does not indicate an urgent need for a visit. Choices A and B are also incorrect as these clients are more stable compared to the client with multiple sclerosis in need of cortisone therapy.

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