Nursing Elites

1. As a type of quality indicator, an example of a structure standard is:

• A. a written philosophy.
• B. a procedure for a straight catheterization.
• C. a protocol for treatment of a client with chest pain.
• D. the diagnostic work-up for a client with abdominal pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'a written philosophy.' Structure standards define the conditions needed to operate a system and do not directly involve client care. Examples include philosophy, objectives, goals, hours of operation, and management responsibility. Choices B, C, and D involve specific procedures and protocols related to client care, which are not structure standards.

2. Two staff nurses were considered for promotion to head nurse. The promotion is announced via a memo on the unit bulletin board. The nurse who was not promoted tells a friend, "Oh, well, I really didn't want the job anyway."? This is an example of:

• A. rationalization.
• B. denial.
• C. projection.
• D. compensation.

Correct answer: A.

Rationale: This is an example of rationalization, specifically the sour grapes form, where the individual convinces themselves that they didn't want something after realizing they couldn't have it. Rationalization is an unconscious form of self-deception involving making excuses. In this scenario, the nurse is rationalizing her disappointment by downplaying her desire for the promotion. Denial involves ignoring the existence of a situation, which is not demonstrated here. Projection involves blaming others unconsciously, which is also not present in this situation. Compensation is an attempt to offset a perceived weakness by emphasizing a strong point, which is not shown in the nurse's response.

3. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan).
• B. labetalol (Normodyne).
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin).
• D. thiothixene (Navane).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression after being given an opiate drug, the physician is likely to order the administration of naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opiate antagonist that attaches to opiate receptors, blocking or reversing the action of narcotic analgesics. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Labetalol is a beta blocker used for hypertension, neostigmine is an anticholinesterase agent used to treat myasthenia gravis and reverse neuromuscular blockade, and thiothixene is an antipsychotic agent used for psychiatric conditions.

4. The nurse is caring for a client scheduled for a surgical repair of a sacular abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which assessment is most crucial during the preoperative period?

• A. Assessment of the client's level of anxiety
• B. Evaluation of the client's exercise tolerance
• C. Identification of peripheral pulses
• D. Assessment of bowel sounds and activity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most crucial assessment during the preoperative period for a client with a sacular abdominal aortic aneurysm scheduled for surgical repair is the identification of peripheral pulses. During surgery, the aorta will be clamped, potentially affecting blood circulation to the kidneys and lower extremities. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to assess peripheral pulses and monitor the return of circulation to the lower extremities postoperatively. Assessing the client's level of anxiety (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as ensuring adequate circulation. Evaluating exercise tolerance (Choice B) is not recommended preoperatively for this situation. Assessing bowel sounds and activity (Choice D) is of lesser concern compared to the critical need to monitor peripheral circulation.

5. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?

• A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
• B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
• C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
• D. Morning administration mimics the body's natural secretion of corticosteroid.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.

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